Why Did Tom Delay Waive the Statute of Limitations?:
One puzzling aspect of Tom DeLay's indictment is that DeLay agreed to waive the statute of limitations applicable to the alleged offense. For the non-lawyers out there in VC Land, a "statute of limitations" in criminal law is a law that gives the government a specific window of time in which to bring a criminal charge. The Texas statute gave the government three years after the crime was committed to bring charges. By waiving the statute, DeLay consented to being charged outside that window of time.
The question is, why would DeLay waive the statute of limitations? (The indictment doesn't make this clear, but I assume he waived the statute of limitations before it ran out, not after.) Defense attorney Norm Pattis suggests that there may have been a deal between DeLay and the prosecutor, and that DeLay is planning on pleading guilty at some point. It seems more likely to me that DeLay knew the indictment was coming one way or another, and he figured that he was better off politically if he could put off the indictment for as long as possible. But this is just speculation on my part, of course. Do any VC readers with experience in criminal law have additional insights to share about this?
The question is, why would DeLay waive the statute of limitations? (The indictment doesn't make this clear, but I assume he waived the statute of limitations before it ran out, not after.) Defense attorney Norm Pattis suggests that there may have been a deal between DeLay and the prosecutor, and that DeLay is planning on pleading guilty at some point. It seems more likely to me that DeLay knew the indictment was coming one way or another, and he figured that he was better off politically if he could put off the indictment for as long as possible. But this is just speculation on my part, of course. Do any VC readers with experience in criminal law have additional insights to share about this?
As frankcross says above, he was likely asked, "Would you like to be indicted today, or would you like to waive the SoL"? This happens regularly, and the answer is always to waive.
If I were DeLay's attorney at this point, I too would be advising him to make lots of noise about wanting a full airing of the facts, not wanting to be vindicated on techincalities, etc. He probably never had a chance to get out of this on the SoL anyway.
But, if there had ever been a chance to beat this thing on the SoL, I don't think DeLay would be foolhardy enough to voluntarily face indictment anyway. The spectacle of being indicted, resigning the leadership post, and possibly standing trial is to my mind worse than the damage that could come from some prosecutor holding a press conference accusing DeLay of beating the rap on a "technicality."
Basically, the answer was to postpone action by the Grand Jury in hopes of forestalling it altogether, as mentioned by Frank Cross and Richard Bellamy.
Wouldn't a politically motivated prosecutor announce that you had signed the waiver of the statute of limitations (rather than face immediate indictment)? Not only was there no announcement, the DA's office apparently never even leaked the fact that DeLay waived the SoL. I think its significant that, as far as I know, there was no press at all on that fact.
That is fantasy. Defending political charges is never a good thing politically. He didn't waive the SoL so that he could voluntarily be prosecuted; he apparently waived it to avoid a quick indictment. Also, what exactly is the "sleazy history" of the prosecutor? If you're implying that the charge is motivated by partisanship, how would you support such a charge, given that the prosecutor has in the past indicted something like 3x as many dems as repubs?
His indictment of Hutchinson when the judge threw out of court. Some of the democrats he indicted were political enemies, e.g. Jim Mattox. Generally the democrats he indicted were crooks and this indictment was for a political crime for political. He has used Delay for political fund raising and this grand jury has leaked
That's because there are more crooked Democrats than Republicans.
duh.
Prosecutor: "This doesn't look good for your client. We're gonna need a whole bunch of documents from him by Friday; can you accept service of the subpoena?"
White Collar Defense Attorney: "Look, we really ought to have a sit-down so you can hear our side of the story before you do anything dramatic, but my client's out of town. And we can't get you all those documents by Friday. How does a month from now sound?"
P: "I'd like to hear you out, but the clock is ticking on the statute of limitations. We really need those documents."
D: "We'll give you a tolling agreement [which treats the statutory limitation period as not running from now until, say, six months in the future, and therefore partially waives the defendant's rights under the statute]."
P: "Fine. Send over a form of agreement."
... and, scene.
(Query whether there wasn't an additional twist here in that DeLay may not be indictable while the House is in session.)
In this context, the only way I can see a tolling agreement being reached is if bona fide plea bargain negotiations were in progress. Otherwise, there would be no point in dragging things out and giving the prosecutor even more time to prepare his case.
Nick
You ought to read that case and what happened. Interesting, all the way around.
Assuming it is a partisan witch hunt (and Delay knows it to be such):
A. There is no rational reason for Delay to agree to a tolling agreement, as Steve makes clear above, except for purposes of political timing (clearing the decks for the 2004, etc.)
B. If Delay's motivation is political timing, and he really really doesn't want this indictment coming down at some time x. A savvy partisan witch-hunter would make sure that x was precisely the time when the indictment was signed. He would not enter into or respect a tolling arrangement that aids the partisan he is trying to skewer.
Given the thinness of the indictment, it seems likely to me that the prosecutor either needed all the time he took or wasn't motivated by partisanship.
I hasten to add that from a partisan point of view, this is exactly the wrong time to indict. Elections are remote, Frist's trouble is in its infancy, the White House still has an incendiary SCOTUS nomination to deal, the political dominoes from the hurricanes are beginning to fall in Louisiana and Washington, and on Monday a new Chief Justice will begin his term. In a media environment like that, an unsexy campaign finance indictment is a three day story.
I doubt that the partisan label will stick well on Earle. If he is a partisan, he's not a terribly effective one. But then I doubt anyone will remember his name in two weeks anyway.
Right, but if it were a political witch hunt, signing it in 2004 makes sense for Delay, but why would Earle offer it then? If Earle really wanted to screw with Delay with little interest in actual justice, why bother even offering that in the fall of '05? Why indict now when the new cycle is really at his disadvantage. Either he's a lousy witch hunter, or he didn't really care about that...
So I think while it is correct to say that the waiver was likely part of a broader strategy to obtain a small settlement through cooperation, it's probably not the case that it was part of a "plea deal" in which DeLay would have pled out to criminal charges.