DOJ Defends NSA Surveillance Program:
DOJ's Office of Legislative Affairs has sent a letter to Capitol Hill (5-page .pdf) defending the legality of the NSA surveillance program. It's heavy on the AUMF for the statutory issue and makes a generalized "special needs" exception argument for the Fourth Amendment.
We couldn't ask Congress to legalize what we did, because THEN THE BAD GUYS WOULD KNOW! ... Because of course, the idea that their phone calls might be tapped never occurs to the Bad Guys.
And to think that some lawyers go to work in the public sector out of "idealism."
It depends, I suppose. When I was at DOJ, there was often a significant gap between the strong legal arguments and the legal arguments that the bigwigs felt comfortable making in public. So if you want to know whether the program was legal, I think you need to go beyond what the bigwigs are saying. On the other hand, if you want to know whether the public arguments are legally persuasive, then of course you can focus on those arguments. It all depends on which question you're interested in, I think.
Congress, specifically those in Congress delegated responsible to their fellows for intelligence matters, is already aware of the the surveillance methods. It is their (Congressional Intelligence Committee) call whether to suggest changes to any law, not the President's. They have not done so.
Partisanship hate is ugly. Partisanship that could reduce national security is dangerous, and needs to be rooted out like any other deliberate attempt to reduce national security.
So, should Sensenbrenner, Luttig, the Republican Senators who helped Filibuster the Patriot Act and the FISA court members requesting an accounting from Bush be "rooted out" as well?
Here is the un-twisted wording:Shall I get you carbons for your written apology, subpatre?
Congress was not aware of this program. Four or so members were told of it &ordered to keep quiet. Thus, the body which enacted FISA was not apprised of what was being done, or given the opportunity to approve or reject the program.
Too much partisanship? Close thy NATIONAL REVIEW; open thy FEDERALIST PAPERS. We have had too *little* partisanship, or else (for ex.) Sen. Rockefeller would've taken his concerns to the full Senate, not handwritten a letter and kept it locked up for CYA purposes.
A vigorous Democratic opposition, and a really "partisan" media, would help keep the Republican-controlled government on its toes. We are just starting to see a bit of that, after 3+ years of being sadly lacking in partisanship.
(Leaving aside the revoltingly partisan nature of this Administration, as too obvious to anyone with eyes.)
If you can provide a quote where Sensenbrenner, Luttig, et al call the Executive's briefing to them "a sad little tissue of lies and half-truths", then perhaps I'll change my opinion.
You should look at the posting on this site regarding Luttig's opinion yesterday in the Padilla case. In so many words, he called the Bush government a bunch of liars. Remember, too, this was the guy on Bush's short list of Supreme Court candidates.
dk - Luttig's opinion was part --read the remainder of the opinion-- of an attempt to make the US a better place. Anderson's was not. Luttig may have used strong wording, but I failed to notice "a sad little tissue of lies and half-truths"
Luttig's opinion is a superb example: He disagrees strongly with the administration, yet somehow manages to stick to relevant facts. Anyone posting here would do well to study it.
See "invective" and "personal insults, and the like" below. Anderson would have been out-of-line addressing it to another poster; it's out-of-line addressing a DOJ executive opinion on national security.
Moving right along, you said: The members were told of the surveillance. They were not "ordered to keep quiet", nor can they be. The suggestion is ridiculous.... and contrived.
Here's Sen. Rockefeller on his letter to Cheney:So, we're not supposed to be "partisan," but a Democratic Senator's report that he was told to keep quiet is "ridiculous ... and contrived."
Apparently I am not trying to make the U.S. a better place by calling b.s. where I see it? I guess we have different concepts of the Good, subpatre ... it's like a paragraph out of Isaiah Berlin or something.
When you think about it, the "Republicans In Name Only" are those who want to sacrifice the Bill of Rights on the altar of National Security. That's how every dictatorship in the book justifies its tyrannies ... "national security." Conservatives, back when they existed, understood this. But power corrupts, etc.
For starters, they've tied their authority directly to the wording of the AUMF. Big mistake. First, this would clearly prohibit listening in on non-Al Qaeda terrorists. Putting aside just how proper an organization Al Qaeda is and whether it's really possible to identify its members, there are clearly lots of terrorist organizations that have nothing to do with Al-Qaeda. I doubt they've been observing this distinction.
Secondly, assuming their justification is correct, a plain reading would allow them to monitor Al Qaeda operatives but not to monitor people to determine whether they are Al Qaeda operatives. Since they've apparently monitored hundreds and perhaps thousands of different people, monitoring them to discover if they are involved in Al Qaeds is exactly what they are doing.
I'd also observe that the Fourth Amendment "reasonableness" justification is a bit of a throw away. If the AUMF isn't "other statutory authorization," then the monitoring still an illegal violation of FISA even if it isn't unconstitutional.
*Especially because it leads to the "if you suggest we're not being 100% truthful about what we're not telling you then you're sending the wrong message to the troops" card.
Well, I am hesitant to dismiss Prof. Kerr's DOJ experience, but this case may be the exception. I suspect that any "secret" arguments are cribbed from
Carl SchmittJohn Yoo.The "secret argument" notion reminds me of the classic British scam, "an undertaking of great advantage, but no-one to know what it is." As Jojo notes, we have been asked to trust this White House too many times, with our trust ill repaid.
1. Every President in the powtwar era has asserted a right of warrantless electronic surveilance for foreign intelligence purposes.
2. No court has ever ruled (that they don't have that authority, despite plenty of opportunity to do so.
In fact the Courts have gone out of their way to make sure that the Presidents inherent authority to counter external threats has stayed intact.
I've heard a lot of blathering here about why AUMF doesn't do what the President claims, why FISA trumps the constitution. There has been an awful lot of construing of statutes, but the one thing I haven't heard from anyone (Orin included) is a single decision from any court that says the President needs a warrant for foreign intelligence gathering, or for that matter contradicts anything in the DOJ memo. On the other hand there have been quite a few citations from both SCOTUS and FISA court of review that say pretty much the same thing as the DOJ memo.
Educate me here.
1. Every President in the powtwar era has asserted a right of warrantless electronic surveilance for foreign intelligence purposes.
Sure, but until 1978, there was no statute to interfere. And please name the post-1978 presidents who asserted what's really at issue here: warrantless electronic surveillance OF U.S. CITIZENS IN THE U.S. for foreign intelligence purposes?
2. No court has ever ruled (that they don't have that authority, despite plenty of opportunity to do so.
Please name the decisions in which the courts were presented with the question? The real question, re: U.S. citizens, as posed above? Post-FISA, please. You've got Silberman's dicta and that's it. Don't bet the house note.
Educated? Or is this just "blathering"?
Second, the fourth amendment argument is facially skeletal, and I think for a simple reason: administration critics are not arguing that FISA is unconstitutional, nor are they arguing that electronic communications that at involve, in part, communications from or to a foreign country are somehow inherently protected-- absent FISA-- from warrantless searches, at least as far as I have seen. (I take it that readers of this blog are sophisticated enough to know that warrantless searches are unconstitutional only if they are unreasonable.) In other words, the critics have not made a Constitutional argument that is deserving of more of a response. If FISA can be construed together with the AUMF to provide a colorable basis for the administrations position, why debate the 4th Amendment? Just assume that both FISA and the AUMF are constitutional, that they can be construed in harmony, and move on.
Third, the practical point that the letter rests on, authorization to use military force implies a power (expectation?) to gather intelligence, seems rather unremarkable. Again, that seems like something that should be uncontroversial, unless it is because Bush did it.
What is emerging is not a classic wiretap program, but some kind of signals gathering and analysis program that surveys a massive number of circuits and isolates a relative few for further analysis. That point of analysis, as I have been given to understand some of these techniques, is likely the first time a human being ever hears the communication or sees the email, and it might be well after the 72 hour period provided by FISA. Hardly grounds for the fear of grandiose claims of immunity from Congressional or judicial oversight that the critics have used to keep the pot boiling, and claims that the adminstration is in fact not making. Calm down.
But what I see in many of these posts are people whose opinions are so molded by partisanship that they are almost useless to help illuminate or understand the issues. "Gotcha" is not the right game to play.
In that regard, I deeply respect Rep. Harmon of California the ranking democrat on the Permanent House Intelligence Subcommittee who had the guts to say ."I believe the program is essential to U.S. national security,and that disclosure has damaged critical intelligence capabilities"
I have the same respect for any Republican who instead of joining the "circle the wagons" bunch instead takes a serious look at how we can best balance security and liberty.
Perhaps we could all follow their examples.
Since you deeply respect Harmon, would you please explain how "critical intelligence capabilities" have been damaged by the story's going public?
Are we supposed to believe that terrorists and their supporters are unaware that phones may be bugged (not mined, but actually bugged) and that they should use word codes, etc.?
It's not about "partisanship"---it's about whether the law's been broken or not. (Which answers Daniel Lee's comment.) I sort of thought that readers of a law blog might find that an important issue. I guess respecting the rule of law is now "partisan," in which case I proudly bear the label.
How to draft a statute that allows reasonable data-mining is a great question, and Daniel Lee's comment above implies some restrictions that might bring such a program within reasonable bounds. Surely it's doable, and not without judicial oversight either.
But the point is that the White House didn't think that to be such a great question. In fact, they deliberately refused to worry about that, if the DOJ letter is to be believed.
And in the Clinton Administration:
And Reagan:
Both are cited here.
Not to mentions the Op-ed from Clinton's Associate Attorney General John Schmidt:
Whether or not the subject of the warrentless surveillence is a U.S. citizen is irrelevent if they are agents of, or associated with a foreign power. No where in these previous presidential assertions (one of which involved Aldrich Ames) was there any caveat about no US citizens being involved.
And you may not like the "Silberman Dicta" (or Keith, or others) but you have yet to quote a single decision supporting your own position.
If it is proper, as the DOJ letter says, to harmonize FISA and the AUMF, then no law has been broken. They rely on plain vanilla statutory construction arguments which, I learned in law school, are not necessarily determinative. However, until someone takes the trouble to use the same sort of analytic tools to rebut the DOJ arguments-- not jsut throw invective at them-- they win by default. And, as I am sure the lawyers who read this blog know, every legal axiom has a companion axiom that can be used in rebuttal. That's why we make the big bucks.
As for your other point, why ask Congress for new legislation if you can make a colorable argument that you don't need it? Why worry about it? Did Bush look the least bit worried during his news conference the other day?
Who would have standing to assert such a theory? Given the President's obligation to faithfully uphold the laws, it's hard to believe that the DOJ could legitimately take that position.
Any help from the cognoscenti? May the DOJ argue that a statute is unconstitutional? Who's to stop it if it does?
The only intelligence you insult by such deliberate evasion is your own.
Of course, one also has to include 18 USC 2511 in the "harmonizing" project, and the way that the letter proposes "harmonizing" 18 USC 2511 makes no sense in light of the plain language of that statute and 50 USC 1809. Additionally, even considering just FISA, it is difficult to harmonize the letter's proposed reading of the 2001 AUMF with the emergency and declaration of war provisions in FISA (as opposed to just 1809). Finally, it is difficult to harmonize the letter's proposed reading of the 2001 AUMF with the USA-PATRIOT Act, which amended FISA for the purposes of dealing with the precise problems the Administration is citing.
But there is another easy way to "harmonize" all of the 2001 AUMF, 18 USC 2511, and FISA as amended by the USA-PATRIOT Act. That would be to simply interpret the "necessary and appropriate" clause in the 2001 AUMF as being consistent with the statutory structure laid out in 18 USC 2511 and FISA as amended.
Of course, there is one notable problem with this obvious way of harmonizing all these statutes: apparently it would mean the President was ordering people to do something illegal.
But, I suppose DOJ could get around this provision by saying that it only refers to a "formal" declaration of war that actually says "we declare war."
I suppose the DOJ letter does present a credible argument regarding compliance with 2511(2)(f), which says that FISA and two other provisions are the "exclusive means" of electronic surveillance. DOJ says that the AUMF is effectively incorporated into FISA by FISA's statement that surveillance can be done "as authorized by statute." I think DOJ could get this point across a bit better if they used the word "incorporated" in their explanation.
Anyway, now that I'm convinced that DOJ has a decent argument, I suppose it's not necessary to argue (as I did previously) about the last sentence of the AUMF. That last sentence does indicate that Congress only meant to save the requirements of the War Powers Act rather than saving requirements generally.
The problem is that 1809 does not by its plain language incorporate anything. It doesn't even say that "surveillance can be done as authorized by statute". Rather, it merely provides that surveillance authorized by some other statute is not a crime under FISA.
Going from FISA not making something a crime to saying that any procedures FISA does not make criminal are actually FISA procedures is really a legal non sequitur.
Anderson now: "....it's about whether the law's been broken or not." Suuure; that's why the definitive statement above.
Anderson now, cont'd: "Since you deeply respect Harmon, would you please explain how "critical intelligence capabilities" have been damaged by the story's going public?"
Anderson, dk35, unenumerated, The Original TS, Jojo, and Al Qaeda all truly believe(d) that certain* communications cannot be surveilled --indeed it's illegal to do so-- without a FISA warrant.
Although the rest may be ignorant, Al Qaeda knew it takes a minimum of [72 hours] to get an order, so used these modes of communication for [71 hours] maximum. Al Qaeda's changed their op manual and moved on; the rest are arguing to restore the status quo.
*Citizens of the United States, aliens lawfully admitted for permanent residence, unincorporated associations a substantial number of members of which are citizens of the United States or aliens lawfully admitted for permanent residence, or a corporation which is incorporated in the United States.
"(a) Prohibited activities
A person is guilty of an offense if he intentionally—
(1) engages in electronic surveillance under color of law except as authorized by statute."
I note that 18 USC 2511 distinguishes between procedures in FISA and procedures in Title 18:
"and procedures in this chapter or chapter 121 and the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act of 1978 shall be the exclusive means by which electronic surveillance, as defined in section 101 of such Act, and the interception of domestic wire, oral, and electronic communications may be conducted."
I guess whoever drafted this language somehow overlooked that the procedures in Title 18 were already procedures in FISA because of 1809.
I'm not sure I even understand that claim. A statute can authorize something without providing any procedures someone needs to follow. Alternatively, a statute can authorize nothing on its own but provide procedures someone needs to follow in order to exercise powers authorized by other statutes.
In any event, that claim is irrelevant because 1809 does not "authorize" anything.
1) "electronic surveillance as authorized by this statute and by chapter 119 or 121 of Title 18" or
2) "electronic surveillance as authorized by any statute."
It seems like you’re saying #1, and DOJ is saying #2. Am I misunderstanding? Also, #2 seems like a more natural reading.
No, I am not saying #1. What I am saying is that 1809 does not "authorize" anything. Rather, 1809 defines a crime: conducting electronic surveillance without statutory authorization. But 1809 does not itself authorize electronic surveillance. Indeed, as far as 1809 is concerned, at any given time there could be no statutes authorizing electronic surveillance, or hundreds of such statutes, or anything in between.
and I actually think this point is completely obvious. Indeed, the plain language of 1809 assumes that authorization must occur elsewhere, and that 1809 itself does not provide authorization.
I think you've got this exactly backwards. The Executive can wiretap a subject for 72 hours without getting a warrant. In other words, the Executive can start surveilance and get its warrant after the fact.
The NSA warrantless surveilance isn't about whether The FISA is flexible enough to allow wiretapping terrorists in fluid situations. It's about The White House's philosophical insistence that the ordinary Constitutional strictures do not bind it in the war against terrorism.
However the Clinton and Reagan quotes still stand, and remember during the Clinton era they were specifically talking about warrantless searches of Aldrich Ames, an American Citizen.
I suppose there is an Article II argument that FISA is unconstitutional, though it seems weak under Youngstown. But even the Administration is not making that currently. And do you have any evidence that is textual or drawn from original intent to support the Article II argument?
"procedures INDICATED ALLOWABLE BY this chapter or chapter 121 and the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act of 1978 shall be the exclusive means by which electronic surveillance, as defined in section 101 of such Act, and the interception of domestic wire, oral, and electronic communications may be conducted."
And, when FISA says that electronic surveillance authorized by other statutes is not prohibited and is not an offense, isn't that the same as saying that electronic surveillance authorized by other statutes is indicated by FISA to be allowable?
Incidentally, the exclusivity requirement in 2511 seems essentially to be a requirement that electronic surveillance must be indicated allowable by statute, instead of by executive order or the like.
What is interesting, and which no one discusses, is what the Fourth Circuit itself said about warrantless surveillance for foriegn info. (By the way the Supreme Court in Keith held that the President does not have the inherent authority to conduct warrantless surveillance for purposes of domesitic info. — given that the NYT has reported that some of the intercepts by the NSA were purely domestic in nature this raises the spectre that there may have been a violation of the Supreme Court's holding in Keith in how this program was conducted; I take no sides on that question because it would require determining when something that begins as a search for foreign info turns into one for domestic info).
Back to the Fourth Circuit opinion. First that opinion did hold that the President does not have the inherent power to conduct warrantless surveillance once the purpose for that surveillance is to build a criminal case against the individual but does so with respect to simply collecting foriegn info.. This raises the question of whether the info collected under the President's program was used in criminal proceedings. If so, then he exceeded his constutional powers per the Fourth Circuit. (The Sealed Case, rightfully I believe, found this distinction between the purpose for the collection to be untenable thus in effect rejecting the Fourth Circuit's constitutional analysis concerning what limits, if any, do exist againt the executive branch's warrantless surveillance of Americans for the purpose of collecting foreign info.).
Here's the kicker, in the course of making this finding the Fourth Circuit questioned even its own holding in light of the recent passage of FISA. It noted that FISA's ability to impose a warrant-requirement of sorts on the collection of foreign info. vitated its own belief that no such warrant could be imposed because of the complexity of the matters and the judiciary's inexperience in dealing with them. Here is the money quote:
"The elaborate structure of the statute demonstrates that the political branches need great flexibility to reach the compromises and formulate the standards which will govern foreign intelligence surveillance. Thus, the Act teaches that it would be unwise for the judiciary . . . to attempt to enunciate an equally elaborate structure for core foreign intelligence surveillance under the guise of a constitutional decision."
This strongly suggests to me that the Fourth Circuit felt that the extent of Presidential powers in the collection of foreign information was co-terminous with the limits placed in FISA. That is, if you violate FISA you also exceed the scope of your powers.
First, no, it isn't plausible to interpret 2511 that way, because that changes the meaning. 2511 actually says "procedures IN this chapter or chapter 121 and the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act of 1978." So, you must look IN those statutes for the procedures. Changing "in" to "indicated allowable by" changes the meaning. And incidentally, it changes the meaning in an absurd way. As I noted, it would be redundant to reference chapters 119 and 121 if FISA incorporated all other statutes, because then FISA would have incorporated 119 and 121 already. Indeed, it would be pointless to incorporate all other statutes into 2511(2)(f) via FISA 1809--you might as well just directly say in 2511 that electronic surveillance can be conducted by any procedures under any statute.
Which is apparently what you are interpreting 2511 to say (that as long as there is some statutory authorization, that is enough). But again, they easily could have just said that in 2511. Instead, they specifically reference the procedures in three places in the US Code, and say those are the exclusive means. Which very clearly indicates that 2511 was intended to do more than require just some statutory authorization--it was intended to limit where such authorization could occur.
Second, no, the fact that FISA only makes unauthorized surveillance a crime does not mean it is "indicating" that such other surveillance is "allowable". Indeed, it is explicitly this OTHER statute that makes the surveillance "allowable", not the criminal provision.
I really can't express strongly enough what tortured reasoning is required for the letter's conclusion. The obvious reading is that when 2511 refers to procedures in FISA, it means procedures actually in FISA. And when 1809 says it is a crime to conduct surveillance except as authorized by statute, it is defining a crime, not incorporating other statutes into FISA.
Why would you presume the NSA would deliberately violate the FISA by intercepting calls inside the US, when they could just as easily do it outside the country, and stay legal? By the way, Powerline blog has an excellent analysis of the legality of the NSA program that you would find interesting.
Why would you presume the NSA would deliberately violate the FISA by intercepting calls inside the US, when they could just as easily do it outside the country, and stay legal? By the way, Powerline blog has an excellent analysis of the legality of the NSA program that you would find interesting.
But Powerline does not know the details of the program. The Administration does, and they are NOT arguing that all the surveillance complied with FISA.
However, I still sincerely believe that the last five words of the AUMF should not be treated as surplusage, and that Congress plainly was trying to protect ONLY the War Powers Act in that sentence, rather than protecting all other requirements (e.g. those of FISA). Moreover, I really do believe that Congress did not intend to make it impossible to use "all necessary and appropriate force" by barring the President from ever deviating from the requirements of FISA. While the AUMF did not repeal any part of FISA, I do believe that it superceded FISA as applied to situations where FISA prevents "all necessary and appropriate force."
Philamark, the administartion would probably have simply denied that it is engaging in any unwarranted electronic surveillance within the meaning of FISA, if that was the case. My guess is that there are technical reasons why intercepting some calls can more effectively be accomplished using an acquisition device in the U.S. that intercepts a wire line.
No, they tied it to past FISC decisions, the Prize Cases, the precedents referenced in the preamble of the AUMF, Hamdi's interpretation of AUMF, and the realities of how the War on Terror is waged. It is erroneous to state that DOJ has sketched a mere textual argument.
Ah, but this is the silly kind of literalist argument divorced from reality that courts regularly eschew. In war, culling intel is a necessary incident to using force, and so it can be included in a reasonable interpretation of the legal consequences of those words.
I'm not sure you answered this question in the other thread--you were heading off as I recall--but I wanted to get your thoughts (or you can redirect me if you did answer this already).
Hypothetically, suppose a court was trying to interpret the "necessary and appropriate" clause in the 2001 AUMF with respect to surveillance (for the sake of argument, I'm assuming surveillance is force). Where do you think the court should look for a definition of what surveillance is necessary and appropriate within the meaning of the 2001 AUMF?
I think not, I think you can't read [variables]. Just for you, I'll re-write:
Anderson wrote: "Since you deeply respect Harmon, would you please explain how "critical intelligence capabilities" have been damaged by the story's going public?"
Anderson, dk35, unenumerated, The Original TS, Jojo, many others and Al Qaeda all truly believed that certain* communications cannot be surveilled --indeed it's illegal to do so-- without a FISA warrant.
Although the rest may be ignorant, Al Qaeda knew it takes a minimum of [some amount of time] to get a warrant, so used these modes of communication for [some amount of time, minus an hour] maximum. Since the Times story broke, Al Qaeda's changed their op manual and moved on; the rest are arguing to restore the status quo.
Petty street hoods all know what conditions police can search without warrants, when warrants are required, amd how long it takes the local judge/magistrate to issue one. They adjust their behavior accordingly; and it's simple enough to scale the model to Al Qaeda.
One of Al Qaeda's MOs was leveraging our characteristics against us. It's improbable that an organization with it's own coherent philosophy, religion, analysis of western law and culture would not take advantage of warrant requirements. If so, and the warrant requirement was illusory, then it was (past tense) a great advantage for the US.
*Citizens of the United States, aliens lawfully admitted for permanent residence, unincorporated associations a substantial number of members of which are citizens of the United States or aliens lawfully admitted for permanent residence, or a corporation which is incorporated in the United States.
Just to avoid bickering down the line, this is a matter of statutory construction. Now, were this a case of statutory construction, and these statutory provisions were being read in isolation, then perhaps what you say would make great sense. But that is not how legal reasonaing works. I can point to many a statutory provision that was obviously intended to be read one way but was misinterpreted by the courts and now means something else. Often that happens in light of a decision interpreting a different statute that for some reason is adjudged, perhaps improperly, to be similar. Securities regulation is rife with these kinds of problems. It happens not only under statutory authority, but also with doctrine under the Contracts Clause and doctrine under the Eleventh Amendment. So simply reading the text of the statutes and construing them in a plausible way consistent with their plain meaning won't get you very far.
That said, the DOJ letter does a good job of dealing with the countervailing arguments that, taken together, outweigh your plain reading of the statutes.
Not really. Lawyers do this all the time. Courts sometimes agree with them, sometimes they don't. It's a worthwhile tactic.
I'm not sure I understand. What AQ would know is that we could conduct surveillance without a warrant for 72 hours, and then continue to conduct surveillance if we got a warrant within 72 hours.
How would using a method of communication for less than 72 hours avoid such surveillance?
I agree that sometimes courts have misinterpreted statutes, and it is always possible they will do it again in any given case. But I wouldn't want to rely on that possibility.
The AG can start a wiretap as soon as it is desired. They then have 72 hours to get a warrant from FISC, so there is no [some amount of time] delay.
DOJ's argument is that the scope of AUMF was already decided in Hamdi. The relevant "mis"-interpretation already took place. In Hamdi, the scope of AUMF was determined to be large enough to fairly encompass the present circumstances. DOJ is simply asking that Hamdi, which is good precedent, be properly applied.
One making your argument is in the position of asking the court to trim back its ruling in Hamdi. So, why should we overrule Hamdi?
Other than that, I'd think a court would try to respect the President's own determination about what unwarranted surveillance is required in order to achieve the goal of using "all necessary and appropriate force." However, if a court determines that the President very clearly could have achieved that goal by following all of the FISA procedures, then a court would be obliged to say that the President has violated the statutory scheme set up by FISA as modified by the AUMF. Then the only remaining issue would be whether that scheme is constitutional (i.e. whether it infringes on the President's inherent powers). I think it would be held constitutional.
Actually, my argument does not require overruling Hamdi. Hamdi. Rather, for numerous reasons, Hamdi is easily distinguishable.
To review, Hamdi interpreted the 2001 AUMF in light of 18 USC 4001(a), which provides, "[n]o citizen shall be imprisoned or otherwise detained by the United States except pursuant to an Act of Congress." The holding of Hamdi is that the 2001 AUMF was the necessary Act of Congress for the purposes of the 18 USC 4001(a).
Even with just 1809 to work with, Hamdi is potentially distinguishable. For one thing, 1809 uses different language than 4001(a). Rather than referring to an "Act of Congress", 1809 provides, "A person is guilty of an offense if he intentionally . . . engages in electronic surveillance under color of law except as authorized by statute." As MMK points out, the language "as authorized by statute" is often interpreted in criminal law as referring to the particular statute in which the criminal offense is defined. Indeed, the DOJ letter implicitly acknowledges this argument. So, this difference in language ("pursuant to an Act of Congress" versus "as authorized by statute") could lead to a different result.
Another obvious distinction is that Hamdi dealt with detention, and this case would involve surveillance. It is at least open to question whether surveillance counts as a use of "force" within the meaning of the 2001 AUMF, even if detention was an example of the use of force.
But neither of these potential distinctions is actually relevant to my particular plain text argument (although both might be sound arguments). Rather, my argument is based not on 1809, but rather on 18 USC 2511, which provides that Title 18 and FISA are the exclusive means by which such surveillance may be conducted.
And there is simply nothing like 18 USC 2511 in Hamdi. So, Hamdi is easily distinguishable on that ground alone.
No, that argument is entirely non-responsive. DOJ's argument, as I said above, is that Hamdi determined the scope of AUMF to be large enough to encompass both 4001 and 2511. You, again, are trying to trim Hamdi down and narrow it to only statutes substantially similar to 4001. Why should the court do that?
Thank you--that was an interesting answer. I certainly think you could be right as a predictive matter--it would depend, I think, on how the court categorized the case under the Youngstown-concurrence framework.
Initially, it may be useful for us to define some terms. You are right that the DOJ wants Hamdi to control this case, and I think it could be distinguished. In that sense, I am suggesting a more limited scope for the holding of Hamdi than the DOJ. But that does not mean I am saying Hamdi should be "overruled".
As for why a court might do that--well, the obvious answer is just that 18 USC 4001(a) and 18 USC 2511(2)(f) say very different things. Again, 4001(a) is open-ended: it refers to any Act of Congress. In contrast, 18 USC 2511(2)(f) is closed--it says that Title 18 and FISA are the "exclusive means".
So, since the statutes are different, the outcome could be different. And I guess I don't see why that is a "non-responsive" point.
On "force"--I'm actually not sure what a court might say on this subject. Detaining people captured on a battlefield is certainly an easier case than conducting surveillance far from the battlefield. But, you may be right that force is still broad enough to encompass surveillance.
As to Jack John's comment that dicta is "used by lawyers all the time," this is a far different view of the Sealed Case than that given by the commentators over on the Power Line blog who somehow read the case as standing for the proposition that warrantless surveillance for foreign information is consistent with presidental powers. As I made clear the Sealed Case never made such a holding on this point one way or the other. Moreover, this is not even dicta because even then there is some reasoning given by the court for the non-holding albeit on a issue that is not determinative of the case before it, here the court simply "assumed" (which most commentators have coveniently forgotten to include) this to be the case. Any lawyer who would give this case as authority, even so-called persuasive authority, would face a strong rebuke from the court he made it to. "Let me understand you counselor, I should agree with your position because some court assumed this to be true but never gave any reasoning in support of this assumption?"
1. Not if AUMF is broad enough to encompass both statutes. I'm asking you why AUMF isn't broad enough to encompass both statutes, even though they have some textual differences. Rulings, on the day they are handed down, have application greater than simply to the facts of the case before the court. They also reach all similar cases pending or on direct review and affect any new cases brought before the court. You are arguing, years after Hamdi was handed down, that the ruling should now be narrowed to its facts. You are in fact arguing that Hamdi's scope should retroactively be narrowed, which would require overruling it, or as I put it, trimming it.
2. That 4001 dealt with detention makes DOJ's interpretation of Hamdi's breadth more plausible than yours. The civil liberty at issue in the case of detention has more constitutional grounding and historical pedigree than the civil liberty at issue in the case of electronic surveillance. We know for a fact that the word 'liberty' was intended to apply to physical restraint; by contrast, protection from data-mining requires a higher level of generality. If Hamdi encompasses 4001, which deals with detention, it necessarily encompasses 2511, which deals with electronic surveillance, because the civil liberty interest is of less weight. This tracks with Andrew's argument.) Mere textual differences are insufficient, so pointing them out is non-responsive.
No, that's not how it would go down. Your hypothetical court, like that court, would simply assume it true if it could avoid deciding the issue, but if the issue were squarely presented it would cull together all the assumptions and say, every court that has looked at it has presumed the President had this power, so we explicitly hold that he has it. Rebuttable presumptions often lurk around as presumptions and then become law later on. It happens all the time. I have never heard of it happening the way you say, though: do you have an example?
That is from an op-ed by ex-con Tom Daschle. So we're supposed to believe ex-con Tom Daschle? Why is he the paragon of credibility? And does ex-con Tom Daschle's opinion beat the Hamdi ruling?
But suppose 4001(a) had said that a detention must be "pursuant to certain acts of Congress that do not include the AUMF." In that case, the holding of Hamdi would have made no sense. And that is the kind of case Medis argued is present with the NSA controversy.
Another definitional point: I would only say I have "limited a case to its facts" if I claimed it only applies to the facts of that case, and NO other facts. But if I merely distinguish a later case, I am not claiming that NO other cases might be controlled by the first case.
So, the precise issue is why I think one can distinguish 2511(2)(f) from 4001(a).
Your point, I believe, is that the subject matter of the statutes (surveillance versus detention) is not a valid ground for distinguishing them. As I expressed before, I'm actually not sure how that would play out--I could see it going either way.
However, I did not distinguish the statutes on the basis of subject matter. Rather, I distinguished them on the basis of the language--in particular, 2511(2)(f) provides for Title 18 and FISA being the exclusive means for surveillance, whereas 4001(a) allows authorization by any Act of Congress.
Again, I'm not sure why this distinction is unclear. But maybe a hypo would help. Suppose 18 USC XXX provided that "the procedures in 50 USC YYY are the exclusive means by which the government may detain battlefield prisoners." In that case, the Court might have held in Hamdi that the President had to follow the procedures in 50 USC YYY, even though it held that he was authorized to detain battlefield prisoners by the 2001 AUMF.
Of course, there is no 18 USC XXX and 50 USC YYY. But there is an 18 USC 2511 and FISA. Which might make all the difference in this case, as opposed to Hamdi.
I guess I'm at a loss here:
On one side there's slews of comments claiming this (NYT revelation) warrantless surveillance of US persons is awful, illegal, impeachable, sign of the Apocalypse, dictatorship, etc. etc. Medis has been one of the loudest.
Now you're saying this warrantless surveillance of US persons is fine and dandy if it's called an "emergency". Are you suggesting there's a loophole in FISA?
That is well and nice, but that is a textual difference that SCOTUS can feel free to disregard. I would advise reading the last paragraph of Scalia's concurrence in Lockhart v. United States.
That a ruling would have "made no sense" is also a non-responsive argument, as I addressed above. Often statutes are misread by courts; the decisions bind anyway. The Court can very easily read-out the textual differences as it did in Lockhart just this term and hold Hamdi to apply because the civil liberty implicated in in Hamdi was of greater weight than the civil liberty implicated in a 2511 case, the textual differences in the statutes notwithstanding. In other words, AUMF is broad enough to encompass both statutes, pursuant to Hamdi.
None of your arguments to the contrary, frankly, is convincing.
So is construing an explicit statute contrary to its plain meaning. It happens all the time. It happened just this term. See Lockhart v. United States, or our Contracts Clause jurisprudence, or our Eleventh Amendment jurisprudence, etc.
No, I have been quite clear. Dsitinguishing gets you nowhere. I accept that the statutes are textually different. The argument is that Hamdi encompassed them both, anyway, at the time Hamdi was decided. Trying to narrow that holding is an implicit overruling.
You might want to read up a little higher in Scalia's concurrence in Lockhart (for what he has to say about implied repeals).
Only if you presume that Hamdi did not encompass 2511 as well as 4001. Why would a court presume that when DOJ is arguing to the contrary? That would not be impartial adjudication.
That part is irrelevant to our discussion.
I don't think the semantics matter. But for what it is worth, this is from the law.com legal dictionary:
"distinguish
v. to argue that the rule in one appeals court decision does not apply to a particular case although there is an apparent similarity (i.e. it is 'distinguished')."
Anyway, a court would not need to "presume" that 2511 and 4001 were different. Rather, they could read the statutes and conclude they were different.
Of course that part is relevant. Given the language of 18 USC 2511, the 2001 AUMF would have to implicitly repeal 18 USC 2511. So the rules for implied repeal are highly relevant.
Anyway, I did take a look at Lockhart. The statutory provision Scalia was talking about said: "No other provision of law, enacted ... after April 20, 1983, may be construed to limit, supersede, or otherwise modify the provisions of this section except to the extent that it does so by express reference to this section." In other words, Congress was attempting to thwart the will of future congresses, and Scalia was simply pointing out that such a provision is invalid. Scalia was correct; such a provision is no more valid than a provision saying that a statute may never be amended. But I don't see anything comparable happening with Hamdi or FISA.
I think Scalia's concurrence is relevant, Jack, but it cuts against Medis. 2511 is the prior statute with an express "exclusive means" provision. AUMF is the subsequent statute with an unambiguous import (at least after Hamdi). Therefore, AMUF cuts off 2511 after Hamdi.
The implicit repeals at issue are legislative.
Okay, you're right, if one takes the reasoning at that level of generality. It sounds fine to me.
Andrew,
Kyle is right at that level of generality, you're right at yours (though I would argue that is too narrow a reading). My point in citing to it was that Scalia made a realist point about the futility of Congressional means to limit legislation as if it operates within a legal vaccuum at the end of his concurrence (which is not law, anyhow): "I think it does no favor to the Members of Congress, and to those who assist in drafting their legislation, to keep secret the fact that such express-reference provisions are ineffective." In other words, we'll just disregard those textual differences.
So, the question for Scalia at least would be whether the "provisions in [the] two statutes are in irreconcilable conflict, or . . . the latter Act is clearly intended as a substitute."
Personally, I don't think either of those conditions are met. 2511 and FISA can be reconciled with the 2001 AUMF simply by holding that FISA defines what the Congress believes is necessary and appropriate. And there is nothing in the 2001 AUMF that indicates it was intended to susbtitute for 2511 and FISA, nor to my knowledge anything in the legislative history. To the contrary, the subsequent amendment of FISA in the USA-PATRIOT Act suggests the exact opposite.
But there is Hamdi.
But the rule for implied repeal is clearly established CONGRESSIONAL intention.
Look, terrorist attacks do not endanger national security, in the sense that they will cause the overthrow of our government and the installation of Islamic rule. Thus, the letter's recitation that security is the most important thing is misleading. Liberty is more precious than security, else why do men walk into a hail of bullets that may cause their death, to secure liberty? The American Revolution certainly endangered the security of the colonies, yet they sorely endangered it to achieve more liberty.
The fact that there will be another terrorist attack sometime, somewhere, that also will not bring this great country down, does not justify a perpetual state of emergency which in turn is alleged to justify any measures the executive wants.
Eventually, in cycles like these, the scared American public relaxes and wants its liberty back. It may be necessary to beef up the statutes or even pass an amendment to deal with terrorism and our own government's tendency to overreact to same; but such will be impossible with the current President and Congressional lineups. That doesn't mean stringent objections should not be made. One that can be registered without a veto-proof majority is refusing to make some or all of the Big Brother Act permanent until we can get a government that is not run by a fear and smear campaign.
This argument is self-refuting and destroys its author's credibility.
Medis, if the bureacratic hurdles of FISA actually prevent a level of force sufficient for the President to kill Osama Bin Laden, why do you believe that Congress would consider that level of force to be "necessary and appropriate"?
Medis, why is it not possible that AUMF could --- instead of substituting for 2511 and FISA --- only supercede them "as applied" in situations where 2511 and/or FISA would preclude "all necessary and appropriate force"? After all, there would then be nothing inconsistent about amending FISA in the USA-PATRIOT Act.
I've acknowledged some of your good points. Let's have some reciprocation. :-)
I do not believe that relying on the Commander-in-Chief Clause as a limiting principle leads to dictatorship. I quote here from a Wasington Post article:
But the president's plan goes well beyond FISA's 15 day limit. So if Congress sought to protect this limit through passage of AUMF, this does not held the administration's cause as the program in question clearly exceeded this limit.
As a final adieu, I believe a paraphrased quote from Ben Franklin is appropriate: Those who are willing to sacrifice essential liberty for temporary safety are neither deserving of liberty or safety.
But most ridiculous argument I've heard is that Congress one week after 19 embedded moles launched a foreign conceived and directed attack against the US from within the US, had no intention of conferring intelligence gathering authority on the President when they declared war:
Some in Congress may well regret this re-affirmation of the Presidents Article II powers, but they haven't used their reference to the War Powers act to revoke them either.
My point was only that it depends on who is in office to exercise the Commander-in-Chief power. If you don't want a dictator in office, don't elect Hillary.
The last sentence of the AUMF is: "Nothing in this resolution supercedes any requirement of the War Powers Resolution." The last five words are not suplusage, and they considerably narrow the meaning of the sentence. Congress obviously wanted to avoid the implication that the AUMF would supercede nothing.
(1) Because the AUMF dealt with the same subject matter as the War Powers Resolution, and therefore Congress apparently felt (perhaps reasonably) that it needed to clarify that the AUMF did not waive any requirements of the War Powers Resolution. In contrast, if they did not think there was any danger of the AUMF being interpreted as repealing 2511 and FISA, nor any of the other statutes that deal with the military (such as the UCMJ), then they might not see a need to mention them.
(2) This is a slightly odd question. You are stating a hypothetical state of affairs (FISA would stop the President from killing Osama), and then asking why Congress would believe that FISA was still a good definition of necessary and appropriate surveillance. Given that state of affairs, and given that Congress was aware of that state of affairs, I have no doubt Congress would hold no such belief. But the relevant question is what Congress actually believed when they passed the 2001 AUMF, and I think the overwhelming evidence is that they saw at least FISA as amended by the USA-PATRIOT Act as a good definition of necessary and appropriate surveillance. So, I guess they didn't believe FISA as amended would prevent the President from killing Bin Laden.
(3) I think they could have done this. The question is whether they actually did it. And the problem with that reading is that FISA on its own terms deals with the need to conduct surveillance in order to prevent actual attacks, sabotage, terrorist acts, and so on. So, I don't think it makes sense to see FISA as amended as providing a rule that did not apply in the situation as described in the 2001 AUMF. Rather, FISA as amended was explicitly intended to deal with that situation as well.
In general ... I suppose I am coming across as stubborn, but I really do think there is a very obvious and very uncomplicated way to explain why in quick succession the Congress both passed the 2001 AUMF and the USA-PATRIOT Act (amending FISA). And that would be to say that Congress saw them as compatible, not in conflict.
So, I really see this attempt to rely on the 2001 AUMF as authority to avoid FISA as a complete non-starter. In other words, I am extremely skeptical of the view that Congress had any such intention when it passed the 2001 AUMF.
The obvious distinction, of course, is that the veto is an explicitly named power, whereas the "power to conduct warrantless searches," if such a thing exists, is at best the implied correlate of a more general shared warmaking power. As for removing cabinet officers, a plausible original-meaning argument could be made that the Constitution doesn't determine anything about it one way or the other. I don't think this argument is right (i.e. I think Myers was rightly decided), but it's not silly or incoherent.
The most obvious reason why the Congress would not see a need to grant the President intelligence gathering powers in the 2001 AUMF is that he already had them (under FISA). And insofar as the Congress thought the old FISA system was inadequate, they addressed that problem in the USA-PATRIOT Act.
Moreover, I never suggested that FISA as amended provides "a rule that did not apply in the situation as described in the 2001 AUMF." I believe that FISA as amended does provide a rule that generally applies in the situation as described in the 2001 AUMF, except in particular, exceptional real-world instances where such application would prevent the President from using "all necessary and appropriate force" to defeat Al Qaeda.
And finally, the last sentence of the AUMF is: "Nothing in this resolution supercedes any requirement of the War Powers Resolution." If Congress believed that the AUMF superceded no requirement at all (as you apparently believe), then there was no reason to qualify the sentence by adding the last five words.
Well, I guess we'll just agree to disagree. Thanks again for the conversation.
(1) The letter concedes that Congress has the authority to legislate in the area of wiretaps when one party is a U.S. person and the other party is overseas? Earlier in the week, I thought the Vice President was taking the position that FISA was unconstitutional to the extent that it infringes on the President's power to conduct wiretaps.
(2) The letter concedes that the wiretaps in question would violate FISA, but for the AUMF?
"...I think the reason is we're seeing a kind of libertarian panic a little bit, where what seems at first glance...this might be proved wrong...but where what seems at first glance a pretty modest program is being described as a kind of universal wiretapping, and also being described as depending on a wild claim of presidential authority, which the president, to his credit, has not made any such wild claim. The claims are actually fairly modest, and not unconventional. So the problem with what we've seen from the media is treating this as much more peculiar, and much larger than it actually is...."
His whole analysis can be found at:
http://www.radioblogger.com/#001248
In other words, plain vanilla intelligence gathering, supported by plain vanilla axioms of statutory construction and no power grabbing constitutional claims.
(1) I agree that the President has discretion under the 2001 AUMF. But that discretion need not include the authority to violate FISA, or the UCMJ, or any other law applicable to military matters.
(2) My point is just that FISA is intended to deal with these situations, and 18 USC 2511 makes it the exclusive means for doing so. I just think this structure cannot be implicitly repealed by something like the 2001 AUMF (of course, it could have been explicitly repealed, but was not).
(3) I confess to not really understanding your surplusage argument. I don't see the words "requirements of the War Powers Resolution" as including a surplusage on my reading. Rather, I see the words "of the War Powers Resolution" as an appropriate clarification of the word "requirements" (in other words, they answer the obvious question--which requirements?--one would otherwise ask). And the fact that they specifically intended to save the requirements of the War Powers Resolution does not mean they specifically intended not to save something else--that to me is a non sequitur.
But even if they did have some unnamed other statute in mind--why FISA? Why not, for example, the entire UCMJ?
And perhaps that is a question worth asking explicitly: do you believe the 2001 AUMF gives the President the authority to order people to violate any provision in the UCMJ provided that he believes doing so would be necessary and appropriate to carrying out his task under the 2001 AUMF?
And even if you believe he SHOULD have that power--do you really think the Congress intended the 2001 AUMF to make the UCMJ advisory in that sense?
As to Keith, Truong etc., we're in pure Youngstown territory, and I don't think, based on his confirmation testimony, anyone ought to be betting on the CJ voting to overturn it.
I agree. To put it in statutory interpretation terms, it is very difficult for me to believe that Congress intended the 2001 AUMF to authorize MORE than what a formal declaration of war would have authorized.
Let me start out by saying that all these arguments are necessary and appropriate, and that the liberty vs. security debate is one we need to have. However, just by looking at the fact that this 1 blog has 4 posts with more than 300 comments arguing the legal specifics tell me one thing.....this is a non-starter for the Democrat party. Sure sure, there will be hearings, and much wailing and gnashing of teeth, perhaps even some Feats of Strength by the usual suspects, but in the end this is so completely arguable, that the Administration and the RNC will end up bludgeoning the Democrats with this come election time.
BTW, can someone link me to something that said this was done on U.S. citizens, cause the limited amount I have read has been very non-specific about that.
Darth Rovius has done it again.
What do you think of the Clinton-Gorelick argument that if Congress wanted to set up procedures to obtain Foreign Intelligence warrants that was all well and good. And while the Clinton Administration would use those procedures when it was appropriate, the Adminstration still reserved the right to act outside of FISA when it was deemed necessary. That postition was also advanced by the FISA Court of Review.
It seems to me that the position that the Bush Adminstration is taking is somewhat narrower, that while they had inherent Article II authority, AUMF conffered statuatory authority as well.
The discussion here, and on other blogs has been illuminating. It certainly has clarified things for me. I think we all recogize that one can "get there" via something like the DOJ's reasoning. I think we all also recognize that it is a somewhat twisty tortured path. If the issue were just statutory construction, it is possible that it is not the best path.
But, as is usually the case it isn't just a matter of statutory construction. There are grave policy issues present.
There it seems to me. the administration has a very compelling case. A number of figures, and not just those politically biased for the administration, are saying that this program is important. Moreover, our own common sense says it is important. Events say that it likely is important. We are uncertain whether the apprehension of Faris was the result of this program and was an operation FISA's procedures would not have worked for. It is not certain that an examination of Moussaoui's computer pre 9/11 , which the FBI concluded they could not meet the FISA standard for, would have revealed details of the plot. But we can easily picture how these and other similar things we do not know about could make important the ability to conduct this kind of program. We do know that a 3-star non political Director of the NSA said:
Those are pretty compelling policy reasons to find a way to uphold the action.
Moreover, if the statutory construction path is not followed, the court will have to deal with the consitutional question of the President's authority as commander in chief, and whether Congress can impinge on that authority. Those are nasty questions that most courts will go a long way to avoid.
What are the policy arguments the other way? The principal one it seems to me is the argument that this is unbridled power -- that only the executive knows what is being done, and that only the executive decides whether it is reasonable.
So it seems to me that this program is going to pass muster with a court if it ever comes before one. Only the most rabid partisans are willing to say "But we know the President's motives are bad, and he lies, and he got the A.G. to lie, and a 3 star, and he sucked the ranking house democrat member of the committee into the conspiracy, and he made those other 12 congressmen be quiet by threatening them with jail, and he even made the New York Times falsely hold back parts of its story".
Being a bit sceptical of human nature, and cognizant of a history where power allowed for good ends eventually ends up being used for bad, I would like congress to fairly and theoretically address and legislate how programs like this should be conducted -- require for instance the disclosure to the intelligence committees rather than relying on the president's good sense to do so. I think, knowing what we do now, Congress could put something good together without needing more details of the program.
Nonetheless, on balance, it seems to me that this program makes sense, is legal, and would be found legal by a court. Had it not been distorted by the newspapers and by politicians trying to score points, I suspect the overwhelming majority of the citizens would also agree.
Savor that, everyone: "the President's power under Article II to conduct warrantless searches."
Imagine reading that out to the Constitutional Convention.
Are we in accord, then, that originalism is dead?
---I'm happy to see the level of discussion rise after I left (good work, Medis &MMK &others).
I am with CharleyCarp that the AUMF is not the Magic Fairy Dust that it is being treated as by some.
But it all comes down to what the SCOTUS thinks it does, which is going to depend not least on who's sitting if/when this issue hits the Court. I can just imagine Alito's opinion for the Court. (For that matter, Breyer might not join Stevens/Souter/Ginsburg, in part.)
establish the (merely) plausible wiggle room Bush needs?
Imagine reading that out to the Constitutional Convention."
A Congress that contained some of the participants in the Consitutional Convention passed the Alien and Sedition Acts which, inter alia, provided for the arrest, detention and expulsion of aliens based on a warrant from the President.
"And be it further enacted, That it shall be the duty of the marshal of the district ... to execute such order... by causing a removal of such alien out of the territory of the United States; and for such removal the marshal shall have the warrant of the President of the United States, or of the court, judge or justice ordering the same, as the case may be."
I think you are probably right in that the AUMF is correctly interpreted as a declaration of war. That is implicitly consistent with Hamdi and explicitly with what AUMF's author, Sen. Biden, has stated (long before the current controversy surfaced).
The obvious problem with that for the Bush administration is that FISA's section 1811 anticipated such a declared state of war, and prescribed in advance what that would mean for the surveillance activities governed by FISA:
The fifteen days lapsed a long time ago.
Notably, the administration's letter failed to address this obvious point.
I do you the credit, however, of assuming that you don't mean to cite those Acts as a precedent?
But, friends, enough of these sounds: go read the March 23, 2008 (yes, 2008) column by Charles Krauthammer at Brad DeLong's blog:Click the link for the jurisprudence of Justice Yoo and other stuff worthy of the Ghost of Christmas Yet to Come.
-The Administration DID obtain FISA warrants for thousands of wiretaps,
so why not these?
-Is an IP address or webmail account a "known U.S. person"?
-Similarly, is a pre-paid cell phone a "known U.S. person"?
If not, how is it even possible to get a FISA warrant?
And, if unwarrantable, how to legally surveil?
323 U.S. 214, 219-20.
Of the two forks of the administration's case, the statutory reasoning is easier to attack. They don't even claim that the surveillance was legal within the four corners if FISA, and their claim that AUMF trumps that is weak. (I believe it is wrong.)
But ultimately, Bush argues that Congress can't stop him.
What is troubling is that his constitutional claim is so sweeping, and that it does not seem amenable to resolution by the courts. It is too early to call this matter a consitutional crisis, but it is getting closer.
Medis,
You asked whether I believe the 2001 AUMF gives the President the authority to order people to violate any provision in the UCMJ, provided that he believes doing so would be necessary and appropriate to carrying out his task under the 2001 AUMF. No, for several reasons.
First of all, if the President were to attempt to circumvent your hypothetical provision of the UCMJ, then the courts would probably have the final say about whether that UCMJ provision prevents the President from taking “all necessary and appropriate force” against Al Qaeda. Surely, there would be no difficulty in getting a party with standing to bring suit.
Second, I have difficulty perceiving any provision of the UCMJ that arguably deprives the President of his traditional ability to run a war successfully, or that impinges on power to conduct activites that are clearly incidental to the use of force.
You also ask whether I really think that Congress intended the 2001 AUMF to make the UCMJ “advisory.” No, I don’t think Congress intended that or did that, nor do I think Congress made or intended to make FISA “advisory.”
To paraphrase John Marshall, the AUMF allows the Executive Branch to select its means for using force against the enemy. But, those means must be plainly adapted to the end, must not be prohibited by any controlling authority, and must be consistent with, e.g., the letter and spirit of the constitution and of the AUMF and of subsequent valid legislation. Courts can enforce all of these requirements, if a case or controversy arises. And such a case or controvery could easily arise if a disgruntled federal employee involved in the surveillance program goes public or is apprehended.
The phrase "cobbled together" springs to mind.
While I disagree with many of your thoughts, my congratulations on a thoughtful post. I'll skip over the legality of the President's actions (though I have extremely grave doubts that it is legal) and concentrate on the other aspects of your post.
I think you're correct to separate the legal issue from the policy issue. There are, however, a couple of dimensions you're missing out on.
There is no objectively correct answer to to the proper balance between security and civil liberties. It's a matter of the subjective preferences of the American People. You cannot, therefore, say that some particular security measure is "necessary." To use an extreme example, body cavity searches on all passengers may marginally increase the safety of air travel. But I, for one, do not believe that the increased security justifies that particular imposition on my civil liberties.
The point here is that we need -- and are now having -- a debate on how to properly balance safety and security in America. That is one reason why I find super secret invasions of civil liberties to be extremely troublesome. We need to decide, as a people, how much is too much. The President may have enormous Article II powers but they do not extend to determining the basic contours of American civil society. There was, just yesterday, for example, an article in the NY Times about New York City authorizing a secret program in which the NY City police infiltrated purely domestic peaceful demonstrations. This sort of thing may be acceptable at some level but it is not acceptable that these programs be kept secret. Deciding whether these programs are a warranted intrusion on civil liberties ought to be a matter of public debate even if they are Constitutional.
Second, there is a political issue here that cannot be ignored. You are willing to place great faith in the word of the Adminstration. Some people, even some of us who are conservatives, are less willing. Strong leadership is an excellent thing but only when coupled with a track record of sagacity and success. The Bush administration, unfortunately, has far more cock-ups than successes to its credit. It has been just flat-out wrong about many things, many important things.
Now we live in complex times and mistakes will happen. But the record of the administration makes it impossible to accept "Trust us. We know what we're doing" as dispositive. We have a right to ask questions and debate the answers. More, we have a duty to ask questions and debate the answers.
All this is to say that, from a policy standpoint, it is not at all clear that things like the NSA wiretaps are a good idea, just as it is not at all clear that allowing torture is a good idea. We need to have a public debate about it to determine whether it is a good idea. It is most not definitely something the President can decide for us by executive fiat.
For over 200 years, these secret Articles have been quietly relied on by presidents who would really, really have liked to share them with the citizens governed by them, but of course, doing so would have tipped off the Bad Guys (Mexicans, Confederates, Spaniards, Germans, Commies, terrorists, space aliens ...).
Nevertheless, I am wondering what Articles VIII through X contain ...
(Gotta watch that PDF cut&paste, it's a work in progress.)
In other news, Apodaca reads the DOJ letter &finds:You say "cobbled together," I say "sad tissue of lies and half-truths." Let's call the whole thing off!
My expectation is that Congress will move to reinforce the statutory language, and soon. But if Bush stubbornly rejects any attempt to rein in the NSA program, I still wonder how this can ever be resolved in court.
The catch-22, it seems, is that no one can ever prove he was a victim of the surveillance, so no one can assert standing to bring an action.
You are right. PDF cut-and-paste left egg on my face.
Let's stick with Article II, instead of Article 11. :-)
I am intrigued by this. You have mentioned it before as a hypothetical "United States v Leaker" case.
How would a prosecution of such a leaker, and his defense, squarely raise the secondary issue of presidential power? I don't get it.
More directly, the FISA court is going to be asking the government whether any of the warrants it issued were based on this program (and based on misleading statements to the FISA court). If the answer is yes, and if criminal prosecutions came from those resulting FISA warrants, then this fact should be made known to the criminal defense lawyers.
I would imagine that Padilla's lawyers are all over this, for example.
If the AUMF had omitted the last five words, the last sentence becomes: "Nothing in this resolution supercedes any requirement." The words “any requirement” in that truncated sentence are perfectly clear (i.e. no clarification needed), and indeed you’re reading the last sentence of the AUMF as omitting those last five words.
Just an Observer,
If a disgruntled employee is fired or prosecuted, then I'd think that person could raise the issue in court of whether or not he was asked by NSA to do something illegal. The degree of presidential power could decide
the case (i.e. more such power=weaker claim by employee).
I, too, have wondered whether Padilla ever was surveilled under this program. That may or may not be true. In any event, Padilla's criminal case is still over the horizon. The case in the 4th Circuit is still about his erstwhile-and-possibly-still-true status as a non-criminal military prisoner, involving charges unconnected to the criminal case.
Very few targets of such NSA surveillance are likely to come under the purview of the criminal justice system. The government's preferred tactic is to keep them outside. Accused criminals have rights, which presumably would include discovery of such surveillance.
There is a remedy availabe for accused crimnals. What is the remedy for innocent persons caught in the surveillance net?
As an aside, I think the precise issue is that FISA and 18 USC 2511 seem to me to be controlling authority, and I have yet to see a convincing argument that the 2001 AUMF was specifically intended to change that fact. Indeed, the amendment of FISA in the USA-PATRIOT Act implies the opposite.
Anyway, on the UCMJ--it actually governs a great deal of conduct by the military, and places limits on the sorts of orders that can be given. Just to give one example relevant to Hamdi (and Padilla):
"809. ART. 9. IMPOSITION OF RESTRAINT
(a) Arrest is the restraint of a person by an order, not imposed as a punishment for an offense, directing him to remain within certain specified limits. Confinement is the physical restraint of a person.
...
(d) No person may be ordered into arrest or confinement except for probable cause."
So, what if the President ordered people in the military to arrest certain people even if probable cause did not exist? This isn't an idle question, since the exact problem in this case may be that the Administration did not think it had probable cause for some of the surveillance (which would explain why they did not use the emergency procedures in FISA). Given the UCMJ, would these be lawful orders? What if the President thought it was necessary and appropriate to relax the standard for arrest--say, to reasonable suspicion, rather than probable cause? Does the 2001 AUMF authorize him to change the standard in the UCMJ?
To give another example: the UCMJ gives all sorts of procedural rights to people serving in the armed forces. So what if the President suspected that a terrorist group had infiltrated the armed forces? Could he order people in the military to violate the procedures in the UCMJ in the name of tracking down these infiltrators?
I really think FISA is just like the UCMJ in this precise sense. It is fundamentally procedural, in that it allows the President to order domestic surveillance provided that certain procedures are followed. So, I don't think 18 USC 2511 "deprives" the President of power simply by making the procedures in FISA the exclusive means of conducting such surveillance, at least not in any sense that the UCMJ does not already "deprive" the President of power because it lays out procedures the military must follow in applying its force.
You're correct. The adminstration does make this claim as a general proposition. This was pretty much their position in Padilla.
This argument proves way too much. In effect, this reading makes the President a military dictator who allows Constitutional and statutory provision to exist at sufference so long as they do not interefere with his pursuit of enemies, both foreign and, apparently, domestic.
An enormous fuss has been made about the Executive's article 2 powers as if the military were not under the control of Congress. Here, in my opinion, is how the structure is supposed to work.
Congress passes laws regulating the conduct of the military. None of these laws, in turn, can violate the Constitution, e.g., Congress can't make a law allowing the military to move soldiers into people's houses in peace time.
The President as Commander-in-Chief can give the military any legal order. He cannot, however, make an illegal order. If he does, everyone in the military is legally required to disobey him. For example, the President cannot, in his capacity as Commander-in-Chief, order the military to torture people.
That's it. The President does not have unfettered authority to do anything he likes as Commander-in-Chief. Rather, he has unfettered authority to do anything legal he likes as Commander-in-Chief. The alternative, that the President is a law unto himself, is anathema to the entire Constitutional structure and has far more serious separation-of-powers problems than FISA and The War Powers Act put together.
We have argued over the hypothetical language "Nothing in this resolution supercedes any requirement" before. Personally, I think that is completely unclear, and if I encountered it in any statute (the 2001 AUMF or otherwise), I would have no idea what the drafters intended. So, I think it was obviously reasonable for the drafters to include that additional language if their sole purpose was to make sure that people reading the statute did not interpret it as waiving any requirements of the War Powers Resolution.
Moreover, I really must object to your repeated claim that I am reading the 2001 AUMF in that hypothetical way (as if it said, "Nothing in this resolution supercedes any requirement"). My reading of that sentence is that it is ONLY about the requirements in the War Powers Resolution, and ONLY says that those requirements are not superceded. On my reading, the sentence says NOTHING about any other requirements. It doesn't say some other requirements ARE superceded, it doesn't say some other requirements ARE NOT superceded, it just says flat out nothing about any other requirements.
And I think that is what is fundamentally wrong about this particular argument of yours. That sentence does not have to take an implicit stand on the requirements in FISA (or the UCMJ, or any other federal law) one way or another. Rather, it could be completely neutral with respect to anything other than the requirements of the War Powers Resolution.
So, I thinkthat sentence tell us absolutely nothing about the issue at hand. Which is completely unsurprising--we need not, and should not, expect a sentence specifically about the intersection of the 2001 AUMF and the War Powers Resolution to provide us with a Rosetta Stone applicable to all other intersections between the 2001 AUMF and federal law. And I think you are making a mistake by assuming that sentence does more than what it explicitly purports to do.
As Horace put it, "Quandoque bonus dormitat Homerus."
On the other question, we have 50 USC 1810:
It's just a matter of finding out whether one fits into the category.
"Before he enter on the Execution of his Office, he shall take the following Oath or Affirmation: "I do solemnly swear (or affirm) that I will faithfully execute the Office of President of the United States, and will to the best of my Ability, preserve, protect and defend the Constitution of the United States." " --US Constitution, Art II Sect 1
Art II Sect 3 states the President "… shall take Care that the Laws be faithfully executed". Both an instruction and an admonition, it's a far cry from the blind, slavish submission advocated.
As long as the President's action is in defense of the nation --the Executive's primary, most fundamental task-- the Courts have backed them; and judging by Orin's cites, will continue. They understand the government isn't a suicide pact.
The Original TS wrote: "None of these laws, in turn, can violate the Constitution, e.g., Congress can't make a law allowing the military to move soldiers into people's houses in peace time."
Agreed. Nor can these laws violate the Constitution, e.g., Congress can't make a law that interferes with or thwarts the President's ability to defend the nation.
Congress does have the power "make Rules for the Government and Regulation of the land and naval Forces"
So which is surveillance of the enemy more like? If that is a power of the president as CinC can FISA stand at all?
Yes!
Kidding aside, it will depend on the circumstances. If FISA clearly interferes with national defense, it's clearly unconstitutional; if FISA's clearly not interfering with national security it's clearly constitutional.
It's apparent there's fuzzy areas, and if asked the Courts may give a rule for the gray proportions. Based on Congressional statements it's also a good chance (probable) that Congress and the President are in accord; that FISA will be used when feasible, Presidential powers otherwise, and neither will contest.
FISA's decent law most of the time and shouldn't be discarded merely because it doesn't fit some particular circumstances.
"If that is a power of the president as CinC can FISA stand at all?"
No, not if it's totally a power of the President; but that's not the claim by anyone (of standing) at this time.
I’m getting close to the end of my long, multi-day visit here at Volokh Conspiracy. I have a lot of other stuff to do, but it’s been interesting exchanging ideas with you here (can't say the same for Greedy Clerk in another thread).
You wrote above about your concerns that the President might use the AUMF to supercede parts of the UCMJ. If that happens, the victims could go to court for an independent determination of whether any UCMJ provision truly does prevent the President from using “all necessary and appropriate force” against Al Qaeda. Keep in mind that Abe Lincoln wouldn’t even let HIS victims even go to court (i.e. he suspended the writ of habeas corpus without congressional authority). Assuming that the AUMF does give the President very limited power to supercede the UCMJ "as applied" to certain circumstances, still Congress could amend the AUMF if Congress believes that AUMF is being abused by BOTH of the other branches (though a veto could make that difficult).
I think it’s fair to say that you’re reading the last sentence of the AUMF as if it said this: “Nothing in this resolution supercedes any requirement.” After all, you haven’t suggested any requirement that AUMF did in fact supercede.
Anyway, for Pete’s sake, let’s not get carried away. The wiretaps were from suspected Al Qaeda to people inside the U.S. Let’s have some common sense here. The President would be impeachable for not swiftly monitoring those calls. He would be impeachable for making his surveillance people spend 90% of their time filling out FISA forms instead of surveilling. And he would have been impeachable for subjecting that particular surveillance to a probable cause requirement.
You wish.
I've not been making the "inherent CinC power" argument, although it may be a legitimate argument. I've just tried to focus on the statutes. And, no, I don't think the 15-day requirement or any other part of FISA has been repealed. They all still apply with full force to electronic surveillance unrelated to Al Qaeda, for example. Also, regarding surveillance related to Al Qaeda, Bush had a 15-day period aftre passage of the AUMF, during which his surveillance was not subject to any judiciall enforceable "necessary and appropriate" requirement. That's my opinion, to which I'm sticking.
http://newsbusters.org/node/3298
The citation is Jabara v. Webster, 691 F.2d 272 (6th Cir. 1982).
Mr. Jabara was a Detroit attorney of Arab ancestry who sued then FBI Director William Webster and others, including officials of the National Security Agency, for federal civil rights violation concerning their obtaining and use of warrantless National Security Agency intercepts of his telephone calls overseas which were provided to the FBI, and for violation of the federal privacy act - 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(7).
Jabara won summary judgment in the district court. The 6th Circuit reversed on appeal.
Jabara did not contend that the NSA violated any of his rights by intercepting his overseas phone calls &telegrams. He alleged that the NSA violated his rights by providing the information obtained by the intercepts to the FBI without the FBI obtaining a search warrant for the information. The parties agreed that the contents of the intercepts did not show that Jabara was a foreign agent, and that the government had no information whatever tending to show that Jabara was a foreign agent.
The 6th Circuit found that Jabara did not have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the content of his messages once they were in the NSA's possession, specifically that he could not reasonably expect the NSA not to share that information with other agencies.
It is my initial opinion, upon a quick reading of this case, that the NY Times article erred in stating that the 6th Circuit found that the NSA's intercepts of Jabara's messages was constitutional. The 6th Circuit simply found that because Jabara did not challenge its constitutionality, "... we may therefore take it as a given that the information was lawfully in the hands of the NSA."
So the NY Times article in 1982 about this case may establish that the NY Times invented phony indignation last week over non-news about NSA intercepts, but the Jabara v. Webster ruling itself did not address the constitutionality of the NSA's intercepts.
I realize that you have not been making the "inherent CinC power" argument. My question was not directed at you, but to the blog in general. It was not just rhetorical, however.
President Bush has been making that argument. And although he and the DOJ have not argued explicitly that the FISA provisions are unconstitutional, they do assert that the president is free to ignore them.
Meanwhile, I would quibble with your statement that "the wiretaps were from suspected Al Qaeda to people inside the U.S." I don't think we know that. We have few details about how the NSA surveillance was carried out.
According to what has been reported, attributed to background sources, the activity may have resembled a large, automated fishing expedition. From the Washington Post story about the FISA court's internal effort to get at the facts:
It seems that the FISA law could have been modified when the original Patriot Act was being written, to set a lower standard for court approval of such a large-scale surveillance program.
Gonzales said at his briefing this week that the administration could not get support in Congress for such a proposal. If the support wasn't there in September 2001, what kind of support will there be now?
When the administration couldn't get legislation it favored, it opted unilaterally to ignore Congress. When it couldn't satisfy the requirements of the FISA court, it opted unilaterally to ignore the judiciary.
The scary argument by proponents of such systems is that privacy is actually protected because everything is captured and sifted by computers. Think about that, and see how comfortable you are with such a principle.
1) Let them know that there were active intercept programs going on. (No, they don't always think of this: cf. when the fact that we could listen to bin Laden's satphone calls was blown, only then did the satphone calls stop.)
2) Let them know how quickly we could respond to the capture of a cell phone or laptop. They may well have believed that they had days to respond; knowing it isn't true will change their operational security "tradecraft".
3) Let them know they weren't protected by being "US persons". Operational security is always a tradeoff between security and maintaining communications; their calculation of that trade off very probably changed.
4) Let them know that some members of their group may have been compromised by us exploiting capabilities they hadn't accounted for.
5) Let them know that there may be changes in their favor in operational methods. We're actually winning this war pretty dramatically; that kind of improvement in morale can be very important.
Those are the things that occur to me offhand (I am an old intelligence guy.) With knowledge of our OPSEC and their OPSEC procedures that I don't have, I could probably think of more.
If you assume the contrary, it would mean that we can kill them, but we can't listen to their phone calls. I'm not sure this sounds very plausible.
How would a prosecution of such a leaker, and his defense, squarely raise the secondary issue of presidential power? I don't get it.
In fact, since the prosecution would be on the Espionage Act, I'm not sure how you'd even raise the issue in court. On 60 Minutes, maybe.
The NSA has been doing this for a very long time. Check out Bamford's 1982 book about the NSA, The Puzzle Palace, at Amazon - in particular the reviews. Its surveillance of electronic communications to and from overseas was public long before then - I recall reading about it in either the SF Chronicle or NY Times in the early 1970's.
Last week's NY Times story was most definitely another example of:
Judge Posner had a recentcolumn in the Washington Post suggesting a possible way out of this dilemma. He inquired whether it's really a Fourth Amendment issue when some automated search engine scours phone calls for suspicious comments. Posner suggested that the privacy concerns may only arise when a human surveillance person actually finds out about the few suspicious comments that are automatically detected. It's an interesting idea, which may lead to improved legislation.
Thanks. I had read Posner's column and found it deeply troubling.
And, as you point out, there is the pesky problem of the text of the Constitution specifying "probable cause" for warrants. The wiggle room is in the gray area where not-unreasonable searches are legally performed without warrants, such as at the border or at airports. But one area we know that warrantless surveillance is unconstitutional is in a purely domestic setting, even if the executive finds national security as a reason.
The bottom line is that if a standard can be developed to support this NSA program of surveillance, which includes only one party to the communication inside the country, that standard should be articulable. It could be written into legislation and passed like any other law. The Bush administration so far has avoided the attempt, opting for unilateral action.
If, on the other hand, no such standard for the NSA program can be articulated, then the practice may be unconstitutional per se under the 4th Amendment. (I do not necessarily argue that it is.) That could extend, theoretically, to the underlying NSA practice of capturing all international traffic. AFIK, the courts have never had to address that.
One issue in defining such a standard for the NSA program, if no warrant is involved, is what role the FISA courts could have. I am not sure that a general "oversight" role is appropriate for the judicial branch. I thought oversight was a legislative responsibility.
Hence, I wonder what the basis is for the "briefing" the FISA judges are supposed to get soon from the government about the NSA program. It sounds like it may be limited to the question of whether the court has issued warrants based on tainted fruit.
I've been following Sunstein's comments on the Chicago Faculty blog, and I stick by my claim.
Andrew,
I don't think the President would have been impeached if he had needed to devote a lot of resources to comply with FISA procedures. I also think that if he thought that was a wasteful use of resources, the correct remedy would be to go to Congress for a change in either FISA or the DOJ's budget, which I am sure he would have gotten if the only issue was the cumbersome nature of the process.
In general, that is really the fundamental problem here: if the legal structure created in the USA-PATRIOT Act was not working well enough, then the correct (and constitutional) response would be for the President to ask Congress for a change. Indeed, if the President had temporarily authorized violations of the FISA procedures while seeking this change, I think the argument for legality under the 2001 AUMF would be a lot stronger. And even if such a temporary suspension of FISA while he sought Congressional action was in fact illegal, I certainly doubt it would be considered grounds for impeachment. And if Congress had actually refused such a request, maybe we would have an opportunity to reassess the Youngstown framework entirely.
But I really think his apparent decision to bypass the legal structure as established by the USA-PATRIOT Act, without ever seeking a change in Congress, is clearly illegal (in the statutory sense). And I also think that even if he does have an Article II power to violate duly passed laws like the USA-PATRIOT Act (a proposition that I find questionable at best), it is a clear abuse of such power to do so without seeking to resolve the conflict by asking Congress to amend the law.
And yes, I think such abuses of power, even assuming the President has such powers, are potentially impeachable offenses.
Of course, we COULD listen to their phone calls. For one thing, FISA would not apply at all to battlefields in other nations. And even if you are talking about suspected agents of foreign powers in the United States, FISA still allows such surveillance--you just need a warrant (within 72 hours).
Indeed, one would have thought the USA-PATRIOT Act was in part about this very issue. Which is why the claim the 2001 AUMF covered the same ground as the USA-PATRIOT Act but authorized much more is a little hard to swallow.
Halkin v. Helms, 598 F.2d 1 (D.C. Cir. 1978).
The appeal concerned the "state secrets" immunity to discovery.
And of course FISA was passed in 1978 at least in part because of the facts underlying such cases.
If not, then I believe you are treating the last five words of the AUMF as if they didn't exist.
But on your hypothetical reading (which is NOT my reading), there WOULD be an answer to that question--the answer would be zero. And once again, I'm saying that (b)(2) provides no answer to this question, not that (b)(2) sets the answer at zero.
Now, I don't mind if you disagree with my reading (that (b)(2) saves the requirements of the War Powers Resolution from the operation of the 2001 AUMF, and is neutral with respect the implications of the 2001 AUMF for all other requirements). But I really must insist that you stop mischaracterizing my reading (by claiming that I think that (b)(2) saves all requirements arising under federal law from the operation of the 2001 AUMF).
Do you think that the AUMF supercedes any other legal requirements, or not? That seems like a fairly straightforward question.
I honestly do not know the answer to that question. In light of the other considerations we have discussed, I don't think it supercedes FISA as amended by the USA-PATRIOT Act. But I don't have the encyclopedic grasp of US law that I would need to answer your question. In other words, as far as I know, the 2001 AUMF may have superceded some legal requirement, or it may not have.
If Congress hadn't added the last five words of the AUMF, then it would have been pretty clear that the AUMF did not supercede any other legal requirement. Right?
Actually, I'm not sure how clear it would have been--as previously noted, personally, I would not really know what to make of such a provision.
But, for the sake of argument, I am willing to suppose that without the limitation, that provision would be equivalent to something like "This Act supercedes no requirements arising under federal law."
And in that case, of course, I would know the answer to your prior question. Which is exactly why your hypothetical reading and my actual reading are different.
Many people here are still as shocked! as Captain Renault to discover something blindingly obvious which has been going on since 1967, the subject of numerous federal cases as far back as 1972-75, been written about in the press for 33 years, and has been the subject of, or a plot device in, innumerable television news stories, generally horrible fiction, movies and television shows.
While many Americans view anything that happened before they were born as ancient history and of no possible effect on their lives, the breathless indignation on this legal board merits constant reminders that last week's NY Times story was phony news.
Jabara v. Webster 691 F.2d 272 was 1982. Abdeen M. Jabara, a US person, alleged [emphasis added]
The court held [emphasis added]Note that the NYT article states "...monitored the international telephone calls and international e-mail messages of hundreds, perhaps thousands, of people inside the United States without warrants over the past three years..." and compare to the "having at least one foreign terminal" criteria in Jabara.
You are overlooking a rather crucial historical development: the actual passage of FISA.
Do you actually have a link to the decision?
The 1982 NYT article is here; the decision is (cached) here.
Thank you very much ... I hadn't been able to find it anywhere myself.
So, it turns out that the NSA surveillance in question occurred prior to November 1, 1971. And Jabara also did not contend that the NSA had violated his Fourth Amendment rights when doing the surveillance, but rather that his Fourth Amendment rights were violated when the FBI obtained the information from the NSA without a warrant.
So, that case addresses neither whether the current surveillance is legal under FISA nor whether the Fourth Amendment is violated by the current surveillance.
See Tom Holsinger's post above in this thread, which appears to put the Jabara v. Webster case in context.
According to Tom, the 6th Circuit ruling did not hold that the NSA surveillance itself was legal. It did not address this question because the parties did not raise it. Rather, the opinion's reasoning simply assumed it was legal. The court's holding was limited to the question before it: whether the NSA could pass on the information to the FBI.
Check your ellipses in the quoted material. I don't have access to the case myself right now. Tom apparently does.
From the case you linked to:
"Jabara, however, does not even contend on this appeal that the interception by the NSA violated his fourth amendment rights; we may therefore take as a given that the information was legally in the hands of the NSA."
And as I noted, the surveillance occurred prior to 11/1/71, so FISA was not yet law:
"On November 1, 1971, the FBI, without a warrant, requested the NSA to supply it with the contents of Jabara's telegraphic communications sent overseas, and the NSA complied by furnishing the FBI with summaries of six of such communications."
It's true the court statedYet the Court goes ahead and does it (opines on the warrantless surveillance) anyway. They had to do this in order to establish a warranted chain or a warrantless chain: must also be read as
Jabara waived any arguments about the legality of the actual surveillance, so the court assumed it was legal. I don't see how that becomes the court "opining" on the legality of the surveillance.
I think it must be read as what is obviously is: a dicta. As such, it has little or no precedential value, and it certainly is misleading to portray such a dicta out of context as a holding of the court.
Most of the comments on this subject, including those by the law professors here, have missed the blindingly obvious.
The NSA program at issue - warrantless intercepts of electronic communications to and from from foreign countries, plus computerized "key-word" searches &traffic analysis of them followed eventually by human surveillance of the most intereresting ones - has existed at least since 1967.
It has been publically known since close to its inception and has resulted in more than a few legal challenges to its constitutionality. Congress regulated it in 1978 with FISA. FISA authorizes Presidents to continue this program provided certain procedures are followed, notably that the Attorney General must get involved. Every President since, starting with Carter, has used this authority and complied with that procedure.
This too has resulted in more than a few legal challenges to this NSA program, including Constitutional attack, all of which have been rejected.
The United States was attacked at home on September 11, 2001. Several thousand American civilians died. Congress immediately gave the President full authorization to use force under the War Powers Act. President Bush then issued an Executive Order to Attorney General Ashcroft authorizing him to direct warrantless intercepts per this NSA program.
Yet suddenly a program which has existed continuously since 1967, and whose continuance was authorized by Congress under FISA (given compliance with certain procedures, etc.), and which every President since has complied with,
magically becomes illegal, unconstitutional, immoral and fattening because President Bush continued it AFTER the U.S. was attacked and AFTER Congress issued an AUMF.
What planet are you guys living on?
This is all partisan tripe by the terminally clueless.
So did President Andrew Johnson, first when he vetoed the bill forcing the Congress to "over-ride", and then when he defended himself in Congress against the impeachment that was based his violation of the Tenure of Office Act by firing his Secretary of War.
Actually, the President "swears" to "faithfully execute the Office of President of the United States", while endeavoring to "preserve, protect and defend the Constitution of the United States", to wit:
A good case could be made that "faithfully upholding" FISA is a violation of the President's Oath to "preserve, protect and defend the Constitution of the United States".
So an act of Congress makes an activity that didn't violate someones 4th Amendment rights before its passage, suddenly a violation afterwards? Such a concept is itself is unconstitutional, to wit:
I had thought Congress by simply passing a law could not change the Constitution. Apparently I was mistaken.
This issue of definition is a very important one, I think. Along with the quesiton of whether an al Qaeda contact is an "agent of a foreign power" under 50 USC 1801(b), there's also, I think, the question of whether communications with either endpoint in foreign territory is "foreign communications."
There are a lot of precedents already cited by Sunstein and others that the interception of foreign communications for intelligence purposes is permissible under Article II, and repeated assertions of this interpretation by executive order, starting at least with Carter. This is also apparently what was targeted in the NSA intercepts --- although they admit some calls with both endpoints in the US were caught by mistake (it's not always obvious where an endpoint of a modern call might be.)
A lot of the high dudgeon has been about "domestic survelliance" but noting that "domestic" implies "not foreign", it would seem that this is ... um, exaggerated ... if this definition of "foreign communications" is true.
It is starting to look like the NSA did intentional warrantless interceptions and examinations of purely domestic communications too, at the orders of persons the President had delegated authority to. This is way, way, outside the foreign communications exception to FISA.
There might be some foreign national exception to the warrant requirement here, but I doubt that covers all of them.
Phony howls of mendacious outrage from the usual suspects are one thing. I shot those down above.
There may be some real wrong-doing here.
Doesn't domestic communications between "agents of a foreign power" plotting "grave attacks or sabotage" against the United States really constitute "foreign intelligence"?
If President Clinton can issue an Executive Order permitting warrantless physical searches of domestic dwellings of American citizens.
Art II Sect 3 states the President "… shall take Care that the Laws be faithfully executed". Both an instruction and an admonition, it's a far cry from the blind, slavish submission advocated.
As long as the President's action is in defense of the nation --the Executive's primary, most fundamental task-- the Courts have backed them; and judging by Orin's cites, will continue. They understand the government isn't a suicide pact.
It is really sad that so many obvious intelligent (and from the nature of the postings legally trained) individuals have such a limited grasp of a true understanding of the Constitution.
The above quote seems to suggest that a President's oath to fulfill the duites of his office supercede any obligation he may have (after all he is only committed to doing "to the best of his ability) to safeguarding the entire Constitution itself, the very document that gives rise to the goverment over which he sits as the chief executive. If just reading this does not cause to pause and fear how far people are willing to go to defend a person (or to be charitable, an institution) then I don't know what will. Our country comes first not our devotion to party or political personalities. In reading much of the posts here there are times I could not help but feel that this misguided devotion was pushing the debate.
Similarly, messages from Kazinski (I suppose a play on the noted jurist Kozinski's name), Jack John, Tom Holsinger, and others that are so willing to either read Article II to give the President plenary (meaning without limit) powers during times of war or who seem to be non-plussed by the wiretaps themselves, should cause us all concern. No man (and for purposes of this post no branch of government) is above the law. The rejoinder, of course, is that how can the President be violating the law if all he is doing is fulfilling his obligations under Article II? This argument supposes that if a power is conferred under the Constitution, then that power is not checked or balanced by other provisions in the Constitution. Any lawyer can tell you this is simply not so. So, for example, say a President believes he can, and in fact, does start conducting warrantless electonric surveillance of American citizens as part of his Commander-in-Chief duties. Does this mean that ends the discussion. No!!! The courts under Article III when presented with a real-life case and controversy can adjudge the constitutional validity of the President's assertion of power. The Congress under Article I can conduct oversight of the President's assertion of power, begin impeachment proceedings if they believe it to exceed his powers (not that I believe there is a snow ball's chance of that happening), etc.,. My point is just because you can find a power under Article II does not mean that a President's power is not without limits with respect to that power.
Finally, many times through this post commentators have suggested that nothing is wrong with the President's assertion of power in this instance because he was only going after people linked to terrorists and/or Al Quidea. This is not an argument, this is an assumption. We do not know who was electronically surveilled nor do we know the circumstances that triggered such surveillence. While one would hope that there was something there to prompt such surveillence in the first place, the fact that the administration would not even seek to obtain a FISA warrant with its water-downed standard for probable cause suggests that the "there" there was not that much. Nor do we know how many people who were surveilled turned out to be truly linked to terrorists. I strongly suspect that after some surveillence some of people were found to have no link whatsoever to terrorists. While many on this post it would appear would have no problem with another citizen having to endure having their phone calls, e-mails, etc. (with all the personal info that come with such communciation broadcast to government agents), montiored for a period of time to clear them of having any connection with terrorists, I suspect that such a carefree attitude is perhaps driven by the commentator's belief that they would never have been so subjected to such surveillence, so why bother if others are so "inconvienced." Let us not forget that while one never think of themselves being surveilled (after all, I know I'm no terrorist), the government does not know that before the fact and may either through incompetence, inadvertence, or mistake only come to that realization after having electronically surveilled such an innocent person.
So much self masterbatory delight! The President gets to do as he pleases. Congress can, by a voice vote stop it in a New York second....If Congress had the guts. Not a single example presented is outside the perview of Congress. So??? how many on this board have asked their Elected Representatives to bring a bill up to the floor to get a vote? ZERO not a one. This is a political debate. Not a legal one. I got proof.
Not a single person has brought a case to court. Why? A court would refuse to hear it. (shhh, no elected member of congress is willing to force his/her peers into a position of an actual vote,thus defining a real position an a topic)
This is simply not true. A court's ability to hear a case depends on whether a live case and controversy before it. That means a party must have standing to be in court to obtain a ruling re: the President's wiretaps. The court would have to hear the legality of such a wiretap if, for instance, a criminal defendant can make a case that some of the evidence being used to prosecute him was obtained through these warrantless wiretaps and he/she seeks to have that evidence surpressed.
As for whether this is a political versus legal debate as is most things with respect to the law both are true. Nor do I think that one has to go call their elected representative before being able to voice their opinion and concerns regarding the topics of the day. Kudos to those that go the extra step and petition their reps, but I don't believe just because you haven't that you should keep your opinion to yourself.
Here is the problem with the statutory argument -- FISA says its requirements can only be superceded by "statute." Tell me if I'm missing something but ATUF is not a statute. It was a joint resolution of Congress. It was not codified into the United States Code (the place one would normally find said "statutes") and interestingly enough it was not signed into law by the President. It didn't need to because again it was only a joint resolution of Congress.
Some may say that such a result does not square with Hamdi but that is not true. In Hamdi the anti-detention statute in question provided an exception for "Act of Congress." A joint resolution of Congress like the ATUF satifies the bill as an Act of Congress. Congress after all acted by passing a joint resolution demonstrating its sense on the matter. The same requirements however were not met for FISA's exception. FISA says only other statutes can supercede its requirements. Perhaps Congress felt that to supercede the wiretap restricitions required a more deliberative effort on the part of Congress than the anti-detention statute in Hamdi required. At least that would be a sound policy reason for the difference in language. Nonetheless because ATUF does not satify FISA's statute requirement it could not have acted to supercede FISA's requirements.
Here is the problem with the statutory argument -- FISA says its requirements can only be superceded by "statute." Tell me if I'm missing something but ATUF is not a statute. It was a joint resolution of Congress. It was not codified into the United States Code (the place one would normally find said "statutes") and interestingly enough it was not signed into law by the President. It didn't need to because again it was only a joint resolution of Congress.
Some may say that such a result does not square with Hamdi but that is not true. In Hamdi the anti-detention statute in question provided an exception for "Act of Congress." A joint resolution of Congress like the ATUF satifies the bill as an Act of Congress. Congress after all acted by passing a joint resolution demonstrating its sense on the matter. The same requirements however were not met for FISA's exception. FISA says only other statutes can supercede its requirements. Perhaps Congress felt that to supercede the wiretap restricitions required a more deliberative effort on the part of Congress than the anti-detention statute in Hamdi required. At least that would be a sound policy reason for the difference in language. Nonetheless because ATUF does not satify FISA's statute requirement it could not have acted to supercede FISA's requirements.