ACLU Files Suit over NSA Surveillance Program:
From the ACLU's press release:
The lawsuit was filed on behalf of a group of prominent journalists, scholars, attorneys, and national nonprofit organizations (including the ACLU) who frequently communicate by phone and e-mail with people in the Middle East. Because of the nature of their calls and e-mails, they believe their communications are being intercepted by the NSA under the spying program. The program is disrupting their ability to talk with sources, locate witnesses, conduct scholarship, and engage in advocacy.The complaint is available here. The causes of action are the Fourth Amendment, the First Amendment, the Administrative Procedure Act, and a general right against the operation of executive actions alleged to violate the separation of powers.
I look forward to an interesting legal discussion free from political points or ACLU-related syndromes.
(But, I think they will just make statements based on what other pundits say.)
2) Meanwhile, former Vice President Gore yesterday called for a special counsel to investigate the controversy, presumably focusing on the criminal side of the issue. Aside from the politics of such a proposal, would it even be legally viable? Since the attorney general already has declared the surveillance program to be lawful, could a special counsel (the AG's subordinate) pursue a different legal theory in the courts?
(Sorry for the repetition. The current thread, directly related to my first question, did not exist when I posted these questions before.)
"61. The Program is substantially impairing plaintiffs’ ability to obtain information from sources abroad, to locate witnesses, to represent their clients, to conduct
scholarship, and to engage in advocacy."
It would seem to me that the program was impairing nothing, until its existence was divulged. How can secret intercepts of information impair plaintiffs' ability to obtain such information (except insofar as the obtained information may lead to the detention of "sources abroad"), as long as the interception remains secret? It is not the "spying" that impairs the plaintiffs' ability to do their work, but rather the "leaking." So shouldn't the ACLU, et. al., be suing the leaker?
Doesn't US v. Ramsey say that border searches of international snail mail is constitutional because there's no reasonable expectation of privacy? That kind of tosses out the first and fourth amendment arguments... as always, it hinges on FISA, which is far too complicated for me to examine in my free time for fun.
I did see that the complaint noted the exception to FISA when a formal declaration of war has been made... Does that mean fifteen days after the declaration or surveillance can take place for a period of up to fifteen days when a declaration has been made? Looks like they'll have to challenge the validity of the War on Terror in order to HOPE for success... but that might have been their intention from the start looking at that plaintiff list.
So, among other things, they want discovery to discover if indeed this illegally disclosed classified information is indeed true. Because, after all, they were harmed by all this surveilance, that they are sure happened because the news reports reported it.
I would think that the weak link is that that they have no certainty that they were surveiled. They are just guessing, and then looking for discovery of classified information to prove out their cases.
Amusing fact: if you put the Authorization for the Use of Military Force in Iraq on the screen in a fairly small window, it looks exactly like a software licensing agreement.
That said, CAIR as a plaintiff really does get at the issue. I have no doubt that if the program is anywhere near what it has been advertised by the press as, that some members of CAIR probably have been surveiled, simply because some of its members probably have talked to the enemy. Not most of its members, of course. But some.
Most of the rest of the plaintiff's are in my mind pretty bogus. I would think that they were thrown in to keep it from being solely about Moslems in the U.S. talking to terrorist Moslems overseas, where the national security concerns would, IMHO, be greatest.
I don't see a viable Fourth Amendment claim, but I can see a colorable argument that FISA has been violated. (And I don't buy the idea that FISA itself is an unconstitutional infringement on executive power).
Then again, maybe there's no private right of action under FISA (especially after Gonzaga and Sandoval).
I also wonder about standing -- why do these particular plaintiffs think they are the ones being subject to surveillance?
And if they had sought damages, I think qualified immunity would pretty clearly bar it.
I am not nearly as bothered by the 4th Amdt. claim. It hits closerer to the real (IMHO) issue. But the 1st Amdt. claims reveals a sort of absolutism that does bother me. I don't think that we do have, or should we have, the right to unlimited speech with our enemies at time of war.
I haven't figured out the Administrative Procedures claim. It is hard wading through all those impressive resumes of all those great people being somehow mysteriously harmed by this program. Maybe tonight.
Of course. Everyone knows that you can't win a war unless you blatantly violate the constitution and other federal law. It's just so obvious. Due Process, schmue Process. Everyone knows the reaosn we won WWII was because we threw the Japs into internment camps. Michelle Malkin and Glenn Reynolds told me so. Thus, we must do the same now. Dang libruls.
FISA provides a remedy. The problem is that the wiretaps were not done through FISA; therefore, a violation of FISA won't provide a remedy to an injured party.
50 U.S.C. § 1810:
The way I read the FISA section you quoted, and Section 1809, someone who is a victim of warrantless surveillance that legally required a FISA warrant can sue for damages, if they can clear the right hurdles.
But the plaintiffs are not seeking damages; they are seeking an order to have the NSA program halted. That is the rationale, I think, for going through the Administrative Procedure Act. That cause of action, in turn, is based in part on the claim that FISA and Title III taken together were violated.
I still think the plaintiffs have an uphill fight to establish standing.
The Court stated:
Listening in on the contents of international communication without a warrant has the potential for a significant chilling effect.
Yes, because everyone knows that Plaintiff Christopher Hitchens has opposed Bush's foreign policy every step of the way. No one on the planet more despises the War in Iraq, and more loves Islamic terrorists, than Hitch.
One can, you know, support Bush on Iraq and still not wish to see the Executive hold the powers of a monarch. I hope they dodge the standing bullet, but I do see the problem.
I would not expect the government to do any such thing. I think they will fight hammer-and-tong on the standing issue and any other grounds they can find to avoid reaching the merits of the legality of the NSA program.
It is one thing to make Bush's legal case from the White House podium, on TV, in op-ed pages and in a letter to Congress; prevailing in court with those legal arguments is rather more difficult.
Trying to stop secret security programs by going to court is just whack-a-mole for lawyers. A more effective move would be to persuade Congress to defund the NSA. If you could.
Perhaps they have prove of the alleged harm based on the fact that their overseas terrorist sources have refused to take their calls since the the leak of the NSA program. Maybe they can convince these "terrorist" sources to be witnesses on behalf of the plaintiffs in this lawsuit.
Just what aspect of the Constitution makes you believe that the Judiciary can trump the Commander-in-Chief when comes gathering "military intelligence" on the enemy and their agents during the time of war? The clearest expression in the Constitution with regards to "Due Process" vs. CiC war powers is found in Article I, to wit:
Without Writ of Habeas Corpus, any "Due Process" to be accorded to "terrorists" and their "agents" is quite moot. Just ask Chief Justice Taney about his efforts to apply "Due Process" on behalf of Maryland "Copperheads" during the early days of the Civil War. Or the "Due Process" accorded the various "Tories" during the Revolutionary War by the Continental Congress under the The Tory Act of January 2, 1776, to wit:
So much for Posse Comitatus and "Due Process" when it comes to dealing "with respect to all such unworthy Americans" at the time "when in Cases of Rebellion or Invasion the public Safety may require it".
When it comes to the President's "War Powers" that is precisely how St. George Tucker, Professor of Law, in the University of William and Mary, and Judge of the General Court in Virginia saw the Commander-in-Chief's "powers", to wit:
This contrasts to the "Responsibility" of the Judiciary with respect to their conduct in the time of war, which is specifically that they have no "Responsibility", so the idea that they could trump the President, as Commander-in-Chief, in fulfilling his Constitutional Duties regarding the "public safety".
The quote you use in your post contradicts the point you are trying to make:
"yet qualified, by some important restrictions, which I believe were not to be found in either of those governments."
Thus the Commander-in-Chief powers or duties whatever you wish to call them are qualified. One of these qualifications is following the law established by Congress and the Constitution. But your speaker says:
"The conduct of the first magistrate of a nation is as frequently liable to censure for his omissions, as for his acts. Whatever, therefore, is left undone, which the public safety may require to have been done, is chargeable upon the neglect of the president, exclusively: whatever may be done amiss is likewise chargeable upon him, in the first instance, as the author and propounder of the measure:"
This, of course, gives the impression that this speaker thinks the executive, when necessary, should go around the law. This would confirm your impression of the responsibilities of the executive. Yet, the next sentence would imply even if the executive needs to do whatever is necessary to protect the public safety "it should afterwards receive the approbation and consent of the senate." What in the fact that the executive in this case has kept this secret for four years makes you think that he followed the standard laid out by the speaker.
Finally, why should we see this speaker as an authority? I never of this person (obviously that is not the standard for judging whether a person is an authority on a subject) and thus I do not know what expertise he brings to this beyond being a professor of law during the early 19th century. But for that matter there are many people who have written on the law. Why is this person a greater authority than Publius, who I think many others have made clear would disapprove of this exercise of executive power? Thus why is this person a greater authority than they are?
Noah
Noah
2) I don't know for sure - may be somebody else does - whether a court would authorize a fishing expedition by a potential plaintiff to discover whether the Government has done some harm to the plaintiff that would justify a suit. It seems pretty far fetched to me, so my conclusion is that this case will dismissed for lack of standing.
Oh well, it's not going anywhere.
Food for though:
Smith v. Maryland (1979)
Second, I hope that the administration tells the courts that it is not playing this game, and that there will be no legal actions, no discovery and no motion practice. The court have no jurisdiction and should butt out.
Why was the introduction and (more importantly the introducer) left out of all the MSM reports and the wingers on both sides?
Barr was absolutely to the right of the mainstream and possesses insight through his days as a prosecutor and member of congress. I am more willing to believe his analysis of the intercepts than I am Scott McClelland or Alberto Gonzales.
While I can understand your believing Bob Barr's analysis over Scott McClellan, from a strictly legal experience standpoint, but you reveal a partisan point of view in your opinion when you inlcude Gonzalez. Alberto Gonzalez's jurisprudence experience as Texas Supreme Court justice, adjunct professor at the University of Houston Law Center and a long career in private practice, exceeds Barr's bona fides in the legal field. You have to also look at Barr's history as a 'privacy rights' hardliner, which does not diminish his conservative credentials, but does expose an axe to grind or bias on the issue.
This is not to say that 'privacy' is a left / right issue, there are those who champion privacy rights on both sides, but for vastly different reasons. The real issue is those playing political football with the very serious task of trying to find the right balance between security and civil rights in this age of the War on Terror. Idealists, of which I classify Barr on the privacy issue, see only black and white, which is a hindrance to finding the right balance.
I don't think anyone argues that Alberto Gonzales is not competent as a lawyer. Rather, his position as the President's chief advocate makes it impossible to think his legal opinion is an unbiased determination of what is legal.
That is why we have courts, not just attorneys general, to decide what the law is.
Actually, St. George Tucker, is saying that the Commander-in-Chief (and not the Congress or the Courts) will be balmed for any failures in "National Security" that take place on his watch. I believe the aftermath of 9/11 makes this point, as well. So, Tucker's point is that if you hold the President responsible for "National Security" failures, you must allow him coresponding "authority" to manage the Nation's Security. This is good management philosophy, and the reason that the Framers take the President's National Security and Wartime "Powers" so seriously. The best example is the ability to suspend the "Privilege of the Writ of Habeas Corpus" "when in Cases of Rebellion or Invasion the public Safety may require it" (Article I, Section 9.) Without Habeas Corpus, the courts are virtually powerless, as Chief Justice Taney found out in the early days of the Civil War.
Tucker likened the Commander-in-Chief authority of the President to that of Monarch in Great Britain. That is pretty "powerful".
Any thoughts on waiver?
Article I describes the powers of Congress, not the President. The executive powers are described in Article II.
The Suspension Clause is generally read as applying to Congress. See Scalia's dissent in Hamdi for some educational background:
In this context of the President's NSA spying potentially compromising the impartiality of judges to manipulate the utcome of cases, did anyone see the Jan. 12, 2006 LA Times article by Laura K. Donohue, You're Being Watched: Efforts to Collect Data on Americans Go Far Beyond the NSA's Domestic Spying Program? Quoted below:
"The FBI has used Patriot Act powers to break into a judge's chambers and to procure records from medical clinics."
It is one thing if judges have particular philosophies; quite another if the Administration is conducting Watergate-style break-ins to manipulate the outcome of judicial independence and the cases properly before our courts. Also a violation of Separation of Powers, one might think.
http://www.dissidentvoice.org/Jan06/Mills15.htm
In my article, I argue for bringing back the law of nations clause into our constitutional jurisprudence because I believe it addresses how military actions against non-sovereigns are to be conducted.
(1) The NSA does not have to identify the source of the information it provides to hte FBI, correct? Or more narrowly, it does not have to clarify whether that information was at least in part a product of one of these illegal taps (or a FISA tap, for that matter)?
(2) If that is the case, what are the 4th Amendment implications for that information used in a proceeding where a defendant enjoys 4th Amendment protection? Does that mean all of this NSA evidence is excluded, because the FBI and DOJ could not possibly know whether it was obtained illegally, or does it arrive with some special presumption of legality that would require the defendant to specifically prove it's illegal origins?
(3) If the information does flow from the NSA to the FBI without "sourcing" involving the tap, is there a way for a criminal defendant to go back and "source" it through the NSA retroactively?
The Laura Donohue (reg req) article in the L.A. Times. Some reminders, yet again: 1) rhetoric and assumptions vs. known quantities and facts; 2) abstractions, legal and otherwise vs. existential weightings (e.g., those pertinent to evolving communications and weapons technologies); 3) ad hominem inferences and insinuations vs. balanced and more substantial analyses.
Also, you don't want a debate on the basis of the subject which was introduced and which you quoted - that is to say judges/courts interpreting the law vs. providing a lack of bias. Two different things.
In the context of this NSA spying, maybe I am a bit fatalistic, but I truly fear for the day the drivers licenses under the REAL ID Act of 2005 that will be using RFID chips transfer those RFIDs to sub-dermal implants in every person on US soil, including our judges. After all, depending in whether they are low frequency or high frequency, wrapping your REAL ID in aluminum foil or degauzing it with a strong magnet will disrupt the RDIF. However, not so easy once it becomes law to have it implanted under everyone's skin.
Maybe people think the "known qualities and facts" about my cases I am not allowed to talk about, especially the one about the driver's license, are science fiction, but I would invite anyone truly interested in where this NSA spying is leading to conduct an internet search on the RFID technology and some of the patents being granted.
What happens to our Democracy when the the RFID chips are both passive and active, and any person, including a judicial officer the NSA/President do not happen to like, find their RFID chip implant remote-controlled to heat up or detonate if the judge does not decide the case to the President's liking. A big violation of Separation of Powers, yes, but what is the poor implanted judicial officer goiing to do about it once the implant has occurred? RFID implants + NSA electronic tracking = control of every movement at every moment of every American.
My father did this type of work, I know from the inside an Orwell world is not far behind. The difference, if one remembers the glorification of it in the Jetsons, is that the Jetsons had free will; most Americans will not once this RFID human-implant system coupled with the GIANT data base that the government is building leaves port.
I honestly am not seeking a debate either; I don't even know if we disagree. I would ask you matter-of-factly to explain that point more fully.
Really?
First, there is no "Article I, Clause 8, Section 10" in my copy of the Constitution of the United States of America.
All the clauses of Section 10 of Article I are specific prohibitions on the "powers and authority" of the several States and not the Executive. Else, the first clause, which is specifically related to "treaty making" authority, which according to Article II Section 2 is the sole perogative of the President (the Senate's sole perogative with regards to treaties is ratifying treaties made by the Executive), to wit:
Second, if in fact the Congress is the source of the "laws of warfare", I suggest it might be instructive to see just how the Congress has elected to exercise such "authority". Please see Title 10 of the Federal Code entitled (ARMED FORCES) that includes at Subtitle A—General Military Law under PART I—ORGANIZATION AND GENERAL MILITARY POWERS in CHAPTER 3—GENERAL POWERS AND FUNCTIONS at § 121 which is captioned - "Regulations" where we find the following:
Of course, "his functions, powers, and duties" are those of "Commander-in-Chief", as stated in Article II, to wit:
Typically, the President acts as "Commander in Chief" at time of peril to the "Public Safety" such as during a war, to wit:
As for the "law of nations", to the degreee that such might refer to formal international understanings (a.k.a. Treaties or "Conventional law of nations"), I would suggest that the Constitution reserves that area of "law making" speicifically to the President under his aforementioned Article II Section 2. "treaty making" authority.
However, the understanding of the Framers as to the "law of nations" was related to and derived the understanding of the Roman "Stoics" as being derived from the "laws of nature, and nature's God":
To the Framers, the source of the "Law of Nations" was God - the same source as the "Rights of Man", and therefore "immutable" ("Not subject or susceptible to change."). This concept was expressed in the Founders' Declaration of Independence from Britain and the British king:
The thoughts expressed in the Declaration of Independence were an appeal to the Nations of World by the representatives of "the People" of the 13 colonies for the independent colonies to take their "rightful place" among these nations.
As for the Constitution's Article I Section 8 reference to the "law of nations", to wit:
It did not take a "Declaration of War" to "punish" Paracy, which was considered a crime (in order words a "Felony"). This explained by St. George Tucker in his contemporary analysis of the Constitution, to wit:
No one disputes the Congress' "authority" to declare war (although some of this has been relinquished by Congress to the President in Title 50's "War Powers Act"). However, once war has been declared, the Framers realized (because of the disaster they witnessed during the Revolution, where the Continental Congress made all the "rules of warfare", and ran the Continental Army by committee - nearly causing a loss to the British) it must be run by a "unitary executive", who the Constitution defines as the President, when he assumes his role during times of peril to the National Security and the "Public Safety" as Commander-in-Chief.
I am sorry if cannot see the "plain meaning" expressed in the Constitution, however, the President authority set "laws of warfare" was recognized by the Framers in the language of the Constitution and by the Congress, in the "plain language" of Title 10.
It seems that the biggest problem with attorneys intrepreting our Constitution is they don't want to accept its "plain English meanings" and instead insist on "discovering" alternate "understandings" base on meanings buried in "penumbra" (An area in which something exists to a lesser or uncertain degree: “The First Amendment has a penumbra where privacy is protected from governmental intrusion” - Joseph A. Califano, Jr.).
Actually, Section 9 of Article I describes not "the powers of Congress", but its "limitation". For example, James Madison, the initial drafter of the Bill of Rights suggested placing them in the body of the Constitution at Article I Section 9, between Clauses 3 and 4 because they were to a "limit" on the "powers" of Congress. Unfortunately, lawyers have found that these "limits" on Congress' "power" are really "extentions of the their power to regulate", as in the case of 2nd Amendment being part of Congress' "delegated authority" to regulate "the People's right to keep and bear arms". Go figure!
Of course, while Article I Section 9 Clause 2, to wit:
limits the Congress' "authority" to generally "suspend" the "Privilege of the Writ of Habeas Corpus", it is silent on who, "in Cases of Rebellion or Invasion the public Safety may require it", may suspend it. As Supreme Court Chief Justice Roger B. Taney found out during the Civil War, President Abraham Lincoln assumed the "authority" to "suspend" the "Writ of Habeas Corpus" as it might apply to certain Maryland "Copperheads", as obviously it was the during "a Case of Rebellion", he believed he had "Power" as "Commander-in-Chief" to do so because "the public Safety required it". Not much different than President George W. Bush's actions with regard to gathering necessary "military intelligence" via "warrantless electronic surveillance" of suspected "enemy agents" in the US through the NSA Surveillance Program in question, IMMHO.
Notwithstanding your most recent cut-and-paste babble, I'll stick with Justice Scalia's interpretation of the Constitution over your own learned work. Not only is he one of the most authoritative "originalist" jurists practicing today, in this case he is simply stating the settled, consensus view that the Suspension Clause applies to Congress and legislation is required to invoke it.
As for Lincoln's actions to suspend habeus corpus during the Civil War, I agree that occurred as a matter of historical fact. But that did not make it legally legitimate. Note Scalia's citation to Chief Justice Taney's ruling "rejecting Lincoln’s unauthorized suspension."
Lincoln's actions, and his refusal to abide with Taney's ruling, caused a constitutional crisis that eventually subsided when Congress itself acted to suspend habeus corpus. Today, we do not yet face a constitutional crisis. I hope and expect the three branches will resolve the current controversy without anyone deploying bayonets around 1 First Street NE, or even convening an impeachment proceeding.
Notably the Bush administration never has asserted the authority to invoke the Suspension Clause, even in arguing cases where habeus is more relevant. No one would take such an argument seriously, least of all the justices.
Even the President's more limited assertion of unilateral authority to detain as an enemy combatant a particular citizen captured on a foreign battlefield, Yaser Esam Hamdi, without judicial process failed to gain more than a single vote on the Supreme Court.
This "limitation" on the "power" of Congress' to legislate a "General Suspension" of "Privilege of the Writ of Habeas Corpus" is interesting for several reasons.
First, the "Writ of Habeas Corpus" is a "power" of the Judiciary (not the Executive nor the Legislative Branch), that "limits" the "authority" of the Executive Branch to "hold" someone in prison (say "non-uniformed combatants"). Prisons, military or otherwise general fall under the authority of the Executive Branch.
Second, the Article I Section 9 "limitation" on the "power" of Congress to legislate a "General Suspension" of "Privilege of the Writ of Habeas Corpus" also has a "limitation": "unless when in Cases of Rebellion or Invasion the public Safety may require it." Obviously, the Article I Section 9 such "exception" limits, not the "power" of "Legislative or Executive Branch", but, instead, the Judicial Branch. Arguably, the "power" of the Judiciary to issue "Writs of Habeas Corpus" is perhaps their most powerful "authority", as until someone is brought before the court, the Judiciary has no "authority" in the matter.
Third, during "Cases of Rebellion or Invasion the public Safety may require it", the "powers" of President, as "Commander-in-Chief" kick in. These "wartime powers" are very much akin to "martial law" ("Martial law is the system of rules that takes effect [usually after a formal declaration] when a military authority [Commander-in-Chief] takes control of the normal administration of justice."). This fact defines the "confict" of "powers" addressed in the 2nd Clause of Article I, Section 9, as being between the Judiciary's "power" to issue "Writ of Habeas Corpus" and the Executive's "authority" to hold on to someone it considers a "threat to public Safety".
It is not necessary to "devine" any "penumbra" secreted in the Constitution to reach this conclusion, as the "plain language" of the Articles in question lead directly to it.
Unlike my hero, Associate Justice Antonin Scalia, I believe that the "Privilege of the Writ of Habeas Corpus" clause of Article I Section 9 is a "limitation" on Congress' "power" to legislate a "general suspension" of the Judiciary's "power" to issue "Writs of Habeas Corpus" (which is a "limitation" on the "authority" of the Executive). However, to the extent that this clause has an "EXCEPTION", this exception, which is - "unless when in Cases of Rebellion or Invasion the public Safety may require it" - is truly a "limitation" on the "power" of the Judiciary, and, I believe, part of the Article II Section 2 "powers" of the President when acting on behalf of the National Security as "Commander in Chief of the Army and Navy of the United States, and of the Militia of the several States, when called into the actual Service of the United States". Please note when the "Militia of the several States" is "called into the actual Service of the United States", to wit:
The Constitution extends solely to the Executive the "power" - "to execute the Laws of the Union". Obviously, the "suppress(ion of) Insurrections and repel(ling of) Invasions" are exactly the same as "Cases of Rebellion or Invasion" when "the public Safety may require" a "limitation" on the Judiciary's "power" to issue "Writs of Habeas Corpus", and have them obeyed by the Executive Branch. It is at these times of maximum Executive "power" that the Judiciary ultimate "power" to issue "Writs of Habeas Corpus" may be "limited" by the Article I Section 9 exception.
To me, this says that Scalia is wrong and that President Abraham Lincoln was right in his "showdown" with Chief Justice Taney over this very "limitation" during the Civil War (arguably at time when our Nation and Constitution were in maximum danger).
While some people think that Congress' "powers" related to the Nation's "war making" ability, to wit:
somehow extend "executive powers" in these areas to the Congress, these clauses actually relate only to the "justification" of (limitations on) Congress' "power" to tax, and should be read, as follows:
The "power" to collect "taxes", arguably the greatest "power" delegated to Congress is "limited" in Article I Section 8 only as to how the "tax revenue" may be spent. This is made clear, I believe, in the "raise and support Armies" clause by it nexus to the 2 year limitation on appropriations for same, that is also found there.
Finally, consider this: Thomas Jefferson, arguably the greatest "civil libertarian" of the Father Founders opined:
Let's take Justice Scalia's dissent in Hamdi to highlight Jefferson's contention.
Upon what does Supreme Court Associate Justices Scalia rely to support his assertion that the "power" to suspend the Judiciary's "power" to issue "Writs of Habeas Corpus"? Is it the "plain words" of the Constitution itself? No, in fact, he admits that "this provision does not state that suspension must be effected by, or authorized by, a legislative act".
What he relies is the opinion of members of the Judiciary Branch:
1st, Ex parte Bollman, 4 Cranch 75, 101 (1807), which involved William Cranch, chief judge of the District of Columbia circuit court, and the second reporter of decisions of the United States Supreme Court. After going bankrupt in land speculation, he was appointed to the DC Circuit bench by his uncle, President John Adams. Cranch, like William Marbury, was one of the "Midnight Judges" appointed under the Judiciary Act of 1801 that led to the Supreme Court case "Marbury v. Madison".
2nd, Ex parte Merryman, 17 F. Cas. 144, 151—152 (CD Md. 1861), this case involved a "Writs of Habeas Corpus" issued at a time of "Rebellion" and rejected by President Lincoln because it was a time when "the public Safety require(d) it". The Writ in question was issued by none than the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court himself, the Honorable Roger Brooke Taney, who decided that President's rejection of his Writ was an "unauthorized suspension" of HIS Judicial "power". Go figure!
3rd, 3 Story §1336, at 208—209, the opinion of Joseph Story, Supreme Court Associate Justice, and law school (Harvard) professor, to wit:
Compare "Burr's Rebellion" with the Civil War (over 500,000 killed) and the current War on Terror where "non-uniform combatants" flew Civilian Airliners in to buildings killing thousands of people.
Please note the source for all these "opinions", including Justice Scalia, were representatives of the very Branch of government whose "authority" is being "limited" by the exception in Article I Section 9 Clause 2 - the Federal Judiciary. One, Chief Justice Taney, really "had a dog in that fight", inasmuch as it was a "Writ of Habeas Corpus" issued by himself, that President Lincoln rejected in refusing to release someone who was organizing the insurrection in Maryland. Can you say "conflict of interest"? Exactly what does it take to get a member of the "despotic Branch" to recuse themself?
Anyway, it is obvious that Judicial Branch would prefer that any "limitations" on their "power" to come from slower acting "Legislative Branch", rather than the "Executive". Why? I think Justice Story's opinion pinpoints exactly why, to wit:
Giving the "power" to suspend the Judicial "power" to issue certain "Writs of Habeas Corpus" during times of emergency and extreme danger to the "public Safety may require it" would like not having said "limitation" at all. No, such a "limitation" would only make sense if the Branch of government directly responsible for the "public Safety" and whose "authority" is being challenged by the Judiciary's issuance of the "Writ of Habeas Corpus" would be vested with the Constitutional "power" to suspend it, but only when at times of extreme danger to the "public Safety may require it", and when the President is Constitutionally mandated to function as Commander-in-Chief.
Besides, to allow the Judiciary to be the sole arbiters as to any "limitations" on their Branch's "powers" makes that Branch exactly what Jefferson said they would be under such circumstance - the "despotic branch"!
Why am I not surprise?
Ah! An originalist that admits his position cannot be found in the clear text of the document in question. I am underwhelmed!
The "consensus" of who you speak is a consensus of the very Branch whose authority would be "limited" by the exception "when in Cases of Rebellion or Invasion the public Safety may require it". Now why would they be unbiased in their "consensus" as to how they would like said "limitation" to work?
I especially like Chief Justice Taney's unbiased "consensus"!
And an unbiased, unprejudiced ruling it was, too, seeing how it was Taney's own "Writ" that Lincoln rejection. Go figure!
Just when do Jurist recuse themself, anyway?
Actually, it was the "Copperhead" Merryman whose actions in Maryland in raising an insurrection to attack the under-defended Washington, DC from the North that was the true "constitutional crisis". The "bayonets around 1 First Street NE" that would have been seen, would have been in the hands of a seccessionist Maryland Militia, under the command of Taney's pal, Merryland, as they took down the Republic and destroyed the Constitution. Thank God President Lincoln, upon his inauguration acted promptly to foil Mr. Merryman's treason. Apparently you have no conception on how truly "dicey" things where for the United States government in Washington, DC in April and May, 1861 - surrounded as it was by Slave States on all sides!
No, they simply keep there "detainees" in Gitmo!
Gee, now I wonder why "the justices" wouldn't take it serious? Bias, perhaps?
So the Judicial Branch voted almost unanimously to uphold the "power" to issue "Writs of Habeas Corpus" - who would have thought? One dissent, hey! At least their is one unbiased jurist on the Supremes!
While I have enjoyed this conversation, please understand that I no longer find it meaningful. If you think that you "win" because you get the last word, enjoy!
In discussions with me and others here, you -- not a lawyer, although that is not disqualifying -- have utterly dismissed the legitimacy of the federal judiciary, thrown out decisions including Katz v United States and Marbury v Madison because you as a True Believer are certain they were wrong, misinterpreted history as law, and ignored non-contested legal dicta written by the most eminent jurists. No matter what authority is presented to you by anyone else here, your next post dismisses it because your True Believer powers of reason enable you to Just Know Better than any of them, and you can cut-and-paste more irrelevant material to clutter up the thread.
I have no more time to spend on such silliness. Adieu.
Well, it minimally needs five to ten-thousand words, but will give it a truncated attempt. First, and to briefly continue in a purposely provocative mode, if a lack of bias were the object, in contrast to more simply ("more simply" only in relative terms) interpreting the law, then in equal measure to the manner in which we're critiquing and examining the President vis-a-vis the allegation of overreaching his executive authority with this NSA program, we'd also be critiquing and examining the former President for inadequately exercising his executive authority in the long wake of WTC '93 and other incidents (i.e., for negligence). Practically understood this is a moot issue (concerning the former President) and can be endlessly debated, so I intend it provocatively more in reference to the idea of a lack of bias than in partisan terms.
In less provocative and more general terms, Lady Justice represents a certain ideal while jurists interpreting the law, even at their very best, reflect a practical and imperfect working-toward that ideal. The ideal which Lady Justice represents is the ideal of proportionately weighing and interpreting the applicable laws - which in turn were enacted by relevant legislatures and enforced by relevant enforcement agencies and police powers. For good and for ill, humble humanity's involvement is, of course, inextricably a part of every link in that chain of consequential activities and events. All this is said not to quibble over any particulars, but to simply acknowledge fundamental conceptions and activities. Put in very simple terms and from a different angle, it's oxymoronic to state "you can't legislate morality" because the moral/ethical is the only thing which can be legislated, at least to any effect.
By contrast, the ideal of a lack of bias is a further ideal still, a platonic ideal, if it might be conceived as such, a more encompassing and higher ideal.
Much of this serves to emphasize the fact that the law subsists upon that moral/ethical substrate which society, past and present, provides. And again, not at all to quibble but to draw out and acknowledge some elemental and inextricable factors - a kind of fundamental ontology - relevant to this subject matter and which can only be described in phenomenological terms if basic comprehensions and a more complete apperception is to be achieved.
The law is necessarily framed in abstract terms: the word, the idea, the ideational, the ideological, etc. and thus reflects, as abstraction, a kind of stasis. But if "the law" is used in a too abstracted manner, too abstracted from the very moral/ethical substrate provided by individuals/society and upon which the law subsists, then, as an abstraction, 1) it risks being wielded as a kind of legalistic cudgel or bludgeon and 2) similarly risks, as abstraction, becoming unmoored from the very subject it is intended to address. A striking example of the latter can be found in this VC thread, where a commenter indicates he wouldn't want an executive to use any extra-legal means even to save N.Y., Chicago and L.A. from nuclear annihilation. An example of the former is the highly partisan/sectarian, presumptive and decontextualized rhetoric which informs the current NSA debate.
Suffice to say the ideal represented by Lady Justice is a more practical, a more mundane, ideal than the philosophical qua moral/ethical ideal of a "lack of bias" - and even the ideal which Lady Justice does represent is too often not achieved due to a variety of factors, both from within the courts per se as well as factors antecedent to the courts such as legislative, activist, ideological formations, educational, etc. - all of which help comprise the moral/ethical substrate alluded to.
I don't seek in any way to demote the ideal represented in Lady Justice, only to set it within relevant frameworks, including the broader or more encompassing ideal of a lack of bias. It's a contrast between a penultimate ideal and an ultimate ideal, again, the latter presupposing something like a qualitative omniscience, including a profound and knowing regard for the human subject, thus it's an ideal which has no need to affect being blind - even to the contrary. The two are both worthy, but neither should be confused with the other since consequences would result, to the detriment and confusion of both.
Thank you for taking the time to post your seriously deep essay. I do not really have a reply, because I don't see how your ideas and mine are in conflict.
I do hope that if you find any of my posts exemplify "the highly partisan/sectarian, presumptive and decontextualized rhetoric which informs the current NSA debate," you will let me know directly.
Ah! Are we cross?
Actually, I feel being a "non-lawyer" is actually to my advantage, as I can eliminate the bias your lawyerly feeling of superiority creates for many in your profession.
Well, I believe you overstate your case a tad. I do not "utterly dismissed the legitimacy of the federal judiciary" as I sincerely believe that taken as a whole, they can always serve as "bad examples". Actually, I merely dismiss the opinions of "eminent jurists" when they are "eminently biased" because these "eminent jurists" have a large "conflict of interest" when it comes to determining who has the last word on Constitutionality. Had the "eminent jurist", John Marshall, head of the Federal Judiciary, found that the elected Congress or the elected President, or even "the People" themselves, were the "final arbiters" of the real meaning of "the People's" Constitution, I would have agreed that YES!!! Chief Justice Marshall was indeed fair and unbiased in his opinion regarding the interpretation of the Constitution. Instead, Justice Marshall decided that HE, and his unelected, life-term colleagues were the top of the "real meaning of the Constitution" food-chain. Imagine that!
As for you being "historically challenged", well I suppose that your postings demonstrate that way better than I ever could.
Gee, can't we all just get along? Look, when you present a "so called" authority, whose opinion is that HE and those like him, have the final say as to what the "real meaning" of the Constitution happens to be, pardon me if I look a tad askance at your authority and his self-serving opinion.
The same goes for the "opinionated" Chief Justice Roger Brooke Taney, and his "OPINION" that Commander-in-Chief Abraham Lincoln didn't have the "authority", at time of rebellion, when both the Constitutional Republic and the Public safety was at terrible risk, to reject HIS "Writ" to produce the body of the "Copperhead" insurrectionist, Merryman. If you cannot see the absurdity of this, you obviously have spent way too much time reading innane opinions of idiots like Taney!
I imagine with all the "silliness" that you spend time on that such just might just be the case. Perhaps if instead of lighting candles to and reading the "non-contested legal dicta" filled opinions all those "eminent jurists" who can't even recognize a "conflict of interest" when the "are one", go out with guys and catch a beer once in awhile, you might find a little better balance in your life. It works for me!
Finally, Mon Ami, you are truly filled with angst. Perhaps you should consider just "kicking-back" a little and laughing at yourself for a change, because you really are truly very funny.
Actually, seeing how Congress was not in session during the incubation of the crisis, which was the insurrection caused when the chosen candidate of the 7 Deep South Slave State failed to get elected, it would have been quite impossible for Congress to have suspended Lord Taney's "Writ" in a timely and effective manner. Do you think this could be why the Constitutional "authority" to suspend a "Writ of Habeas Corpus" at a time danger to the "Public safety" and the Republic was given to the "responsible" Commander-in-Chief, and not to the "irresponsible" Congress?
Of course, Lincoln, who also unilaterally "called forth the Militia", in order to save Washington, DC so the Congress would have a place to meet, called for the Congress to come back and go into emergency session. As I understand it, Congress didn't "itself act" in regards to the suspension of Taney's Writ, but, in fact, Lincoln, himself, permitted them to act "ex post facto" on suspending the "Writ of Habeas Corpus" issued for release of the Maryland insurrectionists. Maybe lawyers and "eminet jurists" are just to dumb to realize that letting "insurrectionists" go at a time of National Security crisis created by a rebellion is not a really great idea. Do you that maybe is why the Constituion didn't name the Chief Justice "Commander-in-Chief?
Ah! So based on your formulation, the "power" to issue a "Writ of Habeas Corpus" describes a "power" of Congress, based on its Article I placement. Interesting concept, does any other "eminent jurists" hold the same opinion? I suppose then Chief Justice Taney had, in fact, usurped a Constitutional Congressional "authority" when he issue the Merryman "Writ", making President Lincoln's refusal to honor same quite "moot".