When you cite a Web page in your article -- or in a court opinion -- you run the risk that the page will be gone by the time some reader of yours will want to check it. The obvious solutions are to archive the page, either on some site that you've committed to keep up yourself, or on some site run by an organization devoted to this purpose. Likewise, publishers (such as law reviews) may do the same for articles that they publish. And I know there are organizations that do try to do this, at least in theory.
My question relates to the practice: Have any of you done this systematically for your own works? Have you used archiving services, and what has been your experience with them? Are there unexpected technical issues one needs to worry about when doing this? I'd love to know, and I imagine that so would many others.
http://amb.vis.ne.jp/mozilla/scrapbook/
It works well.
See Robert Ambrogi's review here.
I think the tool to use that he mentions is called Webcite.
It never occurred to me to "archive" the page electronically.
-rpl
I assumed (perhaps wrongly) that some of the proposed archiving solutions would be publically readable, serving not just as an archive, but also as a mirror. If not, I suppose my question is moot.
I think there's a copyright problem if you just make a copy of something for yourself. For instance, if you just burn a copy of your friend's music CD. Perhaps a printed copy of a web page for yourself would be under fair use, but I think making a mirror site has been held to be a violation.
Eugene Volokh's post poses a question; Michael Dorf's post proposes an answer. How can one be superior to the other?
Bill Poser
I can very, very easily alter whatever file I'm saving. I don't see how it's acceptable in court.
You are adopting an unreasonable interpertation of what I said. I did not say what Dorf's post is superior to, I certainly did not say it was superior to Volokh's question.
I stand by my suggestion that the post is blatantly superior. To what?... I refuse to say.
Then your use of the comparative "blatantly superior" is meaningless. Motion to strike granted.
My refusal to say why I have used a particular term does not prove that my use of the term "blatantly superior" is meaningless. It only proves that I have not established that it is not meaningless. It could in fact, be quite meaningful, depending on the unknown reasons that I am using that particular comparative.
The burden is on you to prove that my use of the term "blatantly superior" is in fact meaningless.
Can someone actually claim a right to privacy for something that is published on a publically accessible web site? Intellectual property rights maybe, but not privacy.
Your post may not be meaningless in the strict sense, but insofar as the likely intepretation is ridiculuous, no other interpretation suggests itself to any of your readers, and you refuse to provide one yourself, the very best that can be said about your comment is that it conveys no information whatever and is therefore a waste of time. I don't care if you waste your time, but I'd prefer that you not waste mine. If you have nothing to say, go play by yourself.
Why all the anger?