Let's run through the different categories here, and see which are well-established and which are new. Category #1 above is well-established, and the cases the Warshak court cites are mostly about that category. For example, the Warshak court relies heavily on United States v. Phibbs, 999 F.2d 1053, 1077 (6th Cir.1993), a case involving administrative subpoenas served on a third party businesses in a criminal case. A defendant named Rojas had been indicted for drug crimes, and the DEA used administrative subpoenas to compel Rojas' credit card and telephone records. Rojas objected that the subpoenas were improper, but the court held that Rojas could not object because he didn't have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the records and this lacked standing to challenge the subpoena. This holding was unremarkable and obviously right. That was the underlying principle of
United States v. Miller: if the government subpoenas your information and you have no reasonable expectation of privacy in that information, you have no standing to object to the subpoena. Thus the subpoena is covered by the usual reasonableness standard.
What's remarkable about Warshak is that the panel seems to simply assume Category #2 and the line between Category #2 and #3. Here's what the court says about Category #2:
The government's compelled disclosure argument, while relevant, therefore begs the critical question of whether an e-mail user maintains a reasonable expectation of privacy in his e-mails vis-a-vis the party who is subject to compelled disclosure-in this instance, the ISPs. If he does not, as in Phibbs or Miller, then the government must meet only the reasonableness standard applicable to compelled disclosures to obtain the material. If, on the other hand, the e-mail user does maintain a reasonable expectation of privacy in the content of the e-mails with respect to the ISP, then the Fourth Amendment's probable cause standard controls the e-mail seizure.
This is certainly a possible rule. It's what the lower court assumed in the Miller decision that the Supreme Court overruled. But why the standard should be probable cause isn't exactly obvious, and there are a bunch of precedents that point in the opposite direction and say the standard should be reasonableness. See, e.g., In re John Doe Proceeding, 680 N.W.2d 792 (Wis. 2004); United States v. Barr, 605 F. Supp. 114 (S.D.N.Y. 1985). These cases treat subpoenas as subpoenas, and don't automatically jump the standard up to probable cause just because a third party has a reasonable expectation of privacy in the information sought.
Perhaps the Warshak court has a good basis for its rule — I can think of some — but it would be nice if the court had settled this very important point by explaining the issue and bothering to discuss the contrary authorities rather than just stating the conclusion.
A few pages later, in an apparent aside in an unrelated section of the opinion, the court then carves out Category #3:
A warrant based on probable cause would not have been necessary had the government subpoenaed Warshak or given him prior notice of its intent to seek an SCA order, because the need for this higher showing would be offset by his ability to obtain judicial review before producing any e-mails. See Phibbs, 999 F.2d at 1077 (“The subpoena has to be ‘sufficiently limited in scope, relevant in purpose, and specific in directive so that compliance [would] not be unreasonable.’ If it is a subpoena duces tecum, the government does not have to secure a judicial warrant before service is effectuated. Nonetheless, ‘the subpoenaed party [must be able to] obtain judicial review of the reasonableness of the demand prior to suffering penalties for refusing to comply.'"(citing See v. City of Seattle, 387 U.S. 541, 544 (1967)).
Woah, here, stop the presses. Why should notice "offset" the need for probable cause? If the standard of judicial review is mere reasonableness, the user presumably is going to lose every time. In the context of subpoenas, reasonableness traditionally just means that the subpoena is relevant to an investigation (even if it just goes to show no crime has been committed). So in cases where the government can provide notice, e-mail presumably is protected only very weakly: the government can provide you with notice that it is getting your e-mails just to make sure you're not committing any crimes. (At least that would be the traditional approach; I'm assuming the Warshak court doesn't also have a new theory of reasonableness for subpoenas, although I wouldn't be surprised if they had that, too.)
Why did the Warshak court think that notice offsets the need for probable cause? Let's unpack the cases a bit to see how much law the court is making (and with how little basis in preexisting caselaw). The Warshak court cites and quotes
Phibbs, which in cited
See v. City of Seattle.
See v. City of Seattle was case on the Fourth Amendment requirements of administrative subpoenas, which are subpoenas issued by an administrative agency rather than a court. The See Court stated:
It is now settled that, when an administrative agency subpoenas corporate books or records, the Fourth Amendment requires that the subpoena be sufficiently limited in scope, relevant in purpose, and specific in directive so that compliance will not be unreasonably burdensome.
The Phibbs case dealt with both administrative subpoenas and grand jury subpoenas (issued, at least as a matter of form, in the name of the grand jury acting through the clerk of the court). In a general section on the law of administrative subpoenas and grand jury subpoenas, the Phibbs court wrote:
Recipients of administrative subpoenas, such as those issued in accordance with 21 U.S.C. § 876, are afforded certain protections under the Fourth Amendment to the United States Constitution. The subpoena has to be “sufficiently limited in scope, relevant in purpose, and specific in directive so that compliance [would] not be unreasonable.” See v. City of Seattle, 387 U.S. 541, 544, 87 S.Ct. 1737, 1740, 18 L.Ed.2d 943 (1967).
If it is a subpoena duces tecum, the government does not have to secure a judicial warrant before service is effectuated. Nonetheless, “the subpoenaed party [must be able to] obtain judicial review of the reasonableness of the demand prior to suffering penalties for refusing to comply.” Id. at 545, 87 S.Ct. at 1740.
I wonder, how does any of this support the claim that notice substitutes for probable cause? If I had to guess, the Warshak court is misunderstanding who "the subpoenaed party" is in cases involving subpoenas. The subpoenaed party is the recipient of the subpoena, which in this case would be the ISP, rather than the user who has a reasonable expectation of privacy in the information, which in this case would be the user. The basic idea, going back at least as far as the Supreme Court's 1906 opinion in Hale v. Henkel, is that the party who is burdened with production has a right to challenge the subpoena. If I'm reading Warshak correctly, the court is assuming that the Internet user is the "subpoenaed party" because the subpoena ultimately relates to him; it then reads the line from
See about challenging the reasonableness of subpoenas and imagines that the rule should be that a notified user can only challenge reasonableness rather than probable cause. But that's not what See was about, as I understand it; the idea that notice substitutes for probable cause seems new.
Perhaps the Warshak court believes that there is a rough equivalence between the two standards as matter of policy. After all, in a traditional Fourth Amendment case involving no third-party storage, the government could either use a probable cause search warrant or else serve a subpoena that then triggers a reasonableness standard. So maybe they're sort of the same? But the equivalence here doesn't work, I think. What's missing is the Fifth Amendment. The major barrier to the use of subpoenas to compel evidence from suspects is the Fifth Amendment, not the Fourth Amendment. Responding to the subpoena would constitute your compelled testimony as to the authenticity, identity, and existence of the evidence that the government is seeking against you. See
United States v. Hubbell. As a result, it can't ordinarily use subpoenas to compel evidence from suspects. However, if you give your information to a third party, there are no Fifth Amendment limitations on the third-party responding to a subpoena for your stuff: Fifth Amendment rights are personal and can't be asserted vicariously under
Fisher v. United States. Once you have information in the hands of a third-party, the Fifth Amendment issues go away.
This means that there really is no equivalence between the Warshak court's Categories #2 and #3. Category #3 simply makes the privacy protection granted in the "reasonable expectation of privacy" portion of the opinion a lot weaker than you would otherwise expect whenever the government knows who the bad guy is and can therefore give notice. And it does so without a particular good reason I can identify or much of a basis in the case law for making the distinction. Perhaps there is a rationale for the three categories that Judge Martin has in mind, or perhaps he is just misreading the precedents; we don't know, as this is only one of many critical questions packed into the short decision without any siginificant discussion.
I also interpreted, and I cannot tell from your post if we differ here, that the "reasonableness" requirement is statutory, and has nothing to do with the Fourth Amendment, that is, when notice is given, no immediate Fourth Amendment rights need be given because the party with the potential REP can assert his rights ex ante.
But if my interpretation is correct - and I don't know if I agree with it as a normative matter - then this wouldn't be an anti-civil liberterian decision at all, because the third party could always, upon showing an REP, force the government to make its probable cause showing under the fourth amendment.
My interpretations are probably wrong - I only briefly read through this part, since it wasn't as interesting to me - and now I don't really have any time to devote to it at all, so maybe you can explain why thisinterpretations was wrong.
The drop is because the subpeonaed party no longer has an expectation that it is protecting a 3rd party's privacy right because that 3d party's choice not to assert that right.
Also, somewhat related question, one that must have come up in an antitrust or other corporate context. Can the United States engage in a (sham) civil case against an individual, and then subpoena material they want to use in a subsequent criminal case, but for which they lack sufficient probable cause to obtain a warrant?
To rephrase, other than the very limited fifth amendment right against self-incrimination, are there other constitutional rights that a proper subject to a subpoena can invoke in a motion to quash or against a civil or criminal contempt charges?
Finally, does the situation change for a grand jury subpoena? A trial subpoena in a criminal case?
Parallel criminal and SEC proceedings are fairly common. United States v. Stringer, 408 F. Supp. 2d 1083(D. Or. 2006)got some press when an indictment was dismissed due to the concealment of the criminal investigation and intentional use of the SEC civil process to circumvent criminal law protections.
There's a bunch of articles out there talking about it—a google search on {stringer parallel investigation} will get you some good explanations—at least in the SEC/Fed Criminal context.
you didnt mention this (yet) but another reason why he should not have prevailed on a preliminary injunction is that there isnt any real cause for harm without the injunction.
true...the court says the US has a policy to seize email..but in his case..even if the court were to impose an injunction for getting his mail by court order without notice...at this late stage in the game the US obviously has more than enough info to get a warrant..making this whole discussion meaningless to his future.
when the preliminary injunction is not supported by necessity..than it shouldn't be granted.
Citation or reliance on cases involving an administrative warrant is unfortunate. The federal government cannot eviscerate the probable cause requirement by "administrating" warrants under the Oklahoma Press guidelines. This is particularly true in third-party situations where disobedience is not an alternative, and in non-commercial situations as well.
Granted, this is dicta in this case as well - but very, very, sloppy dicta.
Can you explain why you think this is a reason that Warshak shouldn't have won? Although Category #2's existence is necessary for Warshak to win, Category #3 is dicta that *hurts* Warshak, since it would still allow in notice situations for the court to obtain his emails based on a lesser standard.