We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness. — That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed, — That whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government, laying its foundation on such principles and organizing its powers in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their Safety and Happiness.
The right to life, then, is indeed a "fundamental" right, recognized as such at the nation's birth. Our founding document states that government exists to secure this right, and that any government that becomes destructive to this right is illegitimate. You can't get much more "fundamental" than that.
When you consider the issue of whether a terminally ill patient has the right to try an experimental lifesaving drug in light of the Declaration's statement of American political principles, the idea, put forth by the majority, that the issue should be whether this specific right is "deeply rooted in this Nation's history and tradition" strikes me as farfetched. Justice Scalia and his allies argue that the Declaration has nothing to say about Constitutional law, but if we are looking for evidence that a right is "deeply rooted" in America's history and tradition, I don't see how we can do better than look to the Declaration. I don't think that clever wordplay can transform the right to self-preservation, to life, into a narrower, historically anachronistic right (how could there be a deeply rooted right to use experimental drugs when life-saving drugs didn't exist until the 20th century?)
If the U.S. government decided to kill terminally ill people by lethal injection because they use up too many medical resources, would the D.C. Circuit hold that there is no right deeply rooted in America's history and tradition not be killed by a lethal combination of toxic drugs injected into the forearm?
UPDATE: A quick response to Orin's post, above, along with some of the commenters. First, what "life" means is pretty clear, at least in this context. No one sensible is going to deny that a terminally ill patient's life is potentially at stake when he is denied the right to use experimental drugs. What separates "liberty" from "license", much less what constitutes the legitimate "pursuit of happiness," (beyond, perhaps, some notion that the government must protect some minimum of property rights) is far more obscure, and the Declaration isn't much help there, in the absence of a strong consensus on what constitutes liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
Second, I didn't say that the Declaration mandates any particular constitutional result. What I did say is that I think it's absurd, when the right to try to preserves one's life is at issue, to define the right as narrowly as possible, indeed in an anachronistic way that makes it literally impossible for the right to be found to exist (another example: there is no historically rooted right to airplane travel, is there? But it would be absurd to define a right to use airplanes that narrowly, as opposed to the right to travel, the right to locomotion, etc.), and ignore the foundational principles of the republic.
Third, to say the right to life is "fundamental" doesn't mean that the government can't regulate it, it just has to show a sufficiently compelling interest to rebut a strong presumption against it. If, for example, the government was preventing the dying from being defrauded, as with laetrile, that would, it seems to me, clearly justify government regulation. (Such regulations would clearly be a function of the police power. The Federal Government isn't supposed to have a general police power, but that's an entirely separate can of worms.) But I'm arguing here that the right is fundamental, not that the government can never, ever, justify regulations that impinge on that right.
Fourth, the Declaration of Independence is actually right at the beginning of the U.S. Code, providing further evidence that it's always been considered part of our LEGAL heritage.
Finally, I'm not expressing any strong opinion as to whether the D.C. Circuit's opinion is consistent with Supreme Court precedent (though I see how my post could be read that way; my best guess is that it's consistent with, but not mandated by, Supreme Court precedent). Rather, I'm attacking the theoretical premise of the opinion, whether or not it's rooted in USSC precedent, that defining the right at issue as "the right to access experimental and unproven drugs in an attempt to save one's life" makes any sense as a matter of first principles, even if one accepts that premise that only rights firmly rooted in American tradition deserve the protection of the Due Process Clause.
One more update: I'm sympathetic to the argument that adopting my position would make the judiciary responsible for more than it's capable of doing, or at least doing well. If that was the court's argument, so be it. The Supreme Court argued in the 1930s that all legislation must be for the general welfare, but it would not police that provision because it was better left to the political branches. Legislation not for the general welfare is still unconstitutional, even if no one is enforcing it. Similarly, if the courts don't feel competent to enforce the right to life, it's still Congress's and the FDA's obligation to only make rules consistent with that right. Denying that the right exists, however, by defining the right at stake in an incoherently narrow and anachronistic manner, strikes me as a lawyerly dodge, a way of saying "we don't want to deal with the problems attendant to enforcing these rights, so instead of honestly acknowledging that, we're simply going to define them out of existence."
Related Posts (on one page):
- Abigail Alliance, Fundamental Rights, and the Declaration of Independence:
- Abigail Alliance and the Declaration of Independence:
Are you arguing that the Constitution always protects rights enumerated in the Declaration of Independence as a "fundamental" constitutional right? In your view, is "the pursuit of happiness" therefore a fundamental constitutional right, such that any law that interferes with a person's pursuit of happiness triggers strict scrutiny?
that was a pretty hot headed and passionate post..and it seems not worthy of your name
are you really comparing this to lethal injection of the infirm??????
As good a chance this has of getting cert granted, I can't help but feel if it does we're going to have a 4-4-1 decision where the conservative branch tries to narrow the use of substantive due processes, the liberal branch rails against the conservatives for ignoring fundamental rights, and Justice Kennedy punts.
You make a good point. As to 'original intent,' it is difficult to find better authority regardless of whether the Declaration is dismissed as not being Constitutional enough. Further, no prohibition on the use of life saving experimental drugs was in place or even contemplated at the time as far as we can tell. Then, an interpretation of the fundamental rights and the right to personal liberty to encompass at least the right to use medicines without a life threatening approval process is no exaggeration. Justice Scalia and his school of thinking are plainly being inconsistent.
This analysis also shows why Justice Brennan was much more true to the creed of this Nation than the wordsmithing based aberrational legal analysis we run into routinely. As example is the limitation on equitable remedies read into ERISA actions by the Supreme Court by limiting the statutory remedies to equitable remedies 'traditionally' available at the time of the founding of the Republic.
Equity, it seems has no room to evolve in this scheme for leaving many plaintiffs without remedies at all as the Department of Labor has pointed out to no avail. Maybe the same is true for legal remedies as well in this colonial spirit du corps. The English did not feel so constrained by any moment in their history.
I think a rethinking is needed to arrive at a relatively consistent system for interpreting the Constitution.
Might not we distinguish between killing a terminally ill person and restricting access to drugs that have not been approved? In the first scenario, we have something like the death penalty, which we understand requires the government to follow due process before it can be carried out. And we know what process is due--no need to resort to the Glucksberg test. In the second, we have a limited access issue that is calculated to strike the appropriate balance between early access and the elimination of harmful side effects. You, much like the Alliance, equate the two scenarios. But suppose that the drug, after extensive testing, will be proven either to shorten or to worsen a terminally ill person's life. If my hypothetical comes to be, by restricting access to the drug that might prove harmful, has the FDA deprived someone of her right to life?
I agree that the Declaration sets out some lofty goals which should be achieved. Substantial constitutional protection for the first phrase "all men are created equal" has taken nearly two centuries and six amendments (13,14,15,19,24) to approximate this ideal.
Some consider that the Declaration seta a pretty firm framework as to what the 9th, 10th amendments mean. You, alas, are roght that current jurisprudence suggests they mean nothing.
But I don't think that's ultimately the proper analysis. Fundamental rights don't hinge simply on how we ask the question. The proper analysis is to first ask if Congress has the authority, under Art. I of the Constitution, to enact the legislation in question. Then we must ask if the regulation is prohibited by any of the enumerated protections contained in the Bill of Rights. Only then must we reach the "substantive due process" question.
Here, I think it's pretty well established that Congress does have the right to control access to medicines, drugs, and other products. They've regulated tobacco and alcohol, at least, since the beginning of the Republic, and I don't see why new chemical compounds are any different.
You haven't pointed to any particular provision of Bill of Rights 1 through 8 which would prohibit Congress from regulating these products in general, nor can I think of one.
Coming to the last question, then, I think it safe to begin from the standpoint that, in general, Congress does have the power to regulate access to medications. The right to access all chemical compounds which can be ingested into the body is, then, not a right implicit in the concept of ordered liberty; it has in fact been regulated, to a greater or lesser degree, throughout most of our history.
In order to find the constitutional right you claim, then, you would need to show that the motivation of the person seeking access to a particular chemical compound can determine whether Congress can regulate access to it. Under that analysis, a person who desires access to some drug for purposes of ameliorating the symptoms of a cold would not have a fundamental right to the drug, but a person desiring access to the same drug for purposes of saving their life would have that right. Even if we accept for purposes of argument that the existence of a constitutional right can hinge on the subjective motivation of the individual seeking to exercise the right, doing so here would be fraught with too many complications to be workable. Must a doctor certify that the person is dying? Does the government have a right to object and provide expert witnesses to rebut the person's claim? Must the motivation be subjective or objective? What if the person truly believes they are dying, but are in fact simply a severe hypochondriac? Is it constitutional to deny the sincere hypochondriac the medication, but unconstitutional to deny it to those who are "truly" dying, in the opinion of some judge?
I think the short answer to your question is that under Raich, there is no such right, but even if Raich provides too expansive a reading of the commerce clause, I think the answer is still that there is no such right, for the reasons I state above.
If you think that the Declaration provides excellent authoritative evidence of original intent, how do you reconcile the following: the Declaration makes unalienable the rights to life and liberty; the Fifth Amendment to the Constitution says that we can take away these rights by following due process. What gives? Are they, in fact, unalienable or are they only as important as a jury of your peers in a criminal trial thinks them to be?
I am not a lawyer and perhaps that's why I don't go down the road to disect every word by legal precedent, original intent and the like. I sometimes find this approach nauseating.
Tell me, if in doubt, why should not the enhancement and expansion of our liberty take precedent over all other considerations?
Isn't this the Original Idea of the foundation of this country? Isn't this the the only way for free people?
I really hope that we can agree on that premise. Then why the hell all this arguing? My personal right to life includes the right to pursue it any way I see fit. This includes the right to end my life! Only exception: I seriously interfere with the individual rights of others.
I have before me now the Declaration, the Constitution and a prefacing quote by Hamilton a booklet sent out by Sen Lloyd Doggett. I am sure the Declaration and the quote are included just to please the bible-thumpers, who otherwise would be deprived of all reference to their god.
If everyone agreed with your premise, then the law at issue wouldn't exist and there wouldn't be a legal challenge to bring. Obviously a lot of people disagree with your premise.
I like to think that the process of getting something done matters in our constitutional design as much as, if not more than, what it is you're seeking. Thus, if you want an expansion of some liberty (for example, the right to take your own life) but fail to persuade the relevant majority (local, state, or federal) that you should have your liberty so expanded, then that's the end of the road. You, of course, can go to the federal courts and ask them to override the majority's wishes, but some of us think this to be a bad outcome. Why? Well, because you'll not always be the winner in that system. Who's to say that your definition of "liberty" comports with another person's definition? You want yours to trump others', vote for a candidate who agrees with you. That, to me at least, seems to be the core of why you can't just waive the "liberty" flag and win every argument.
Yes, of course. Unfortunately my question was rhetorical. Then my conclusion is that what the "lot of people" have in mind for me is ultimately unacceptable. Some day, I fear I, and people that think like I do, will run out of polite discourse and respect for the law and conclude we have to fight for our rights. That will be a sad day.
I don't want to compare myself to such people as George Washington, B. Franklin, John Adams et al. But isn't this exactly what they reluctantly had to do when facing subjugation by King and Parliament?
I hear you, but I stand behind my last post. Ultimately, losing my liberty, albeit in perceived adherance to law, precedent, and will of the majority, is unacceptable. That does not preclude me giving up some freedom after having been persuaded that it is required as temporary measure of last resort. It does not include State paternalism, the convenience of bureaucracy, or the economic gain of some group, to name a few.
Following your argument this country would still be a British colony. There is, in my humble opinion, only one argument acceptable to abridge my liberty: If it enhances someone else's; and mine along with it.
And RainerK you're right in not wanting to compare yourself to those men. They fought for articulable reasons. You're upset because you can't have access to untested drugs to kill yourself? Well, I suppose there's little stopping one from a gun.
The short answer, of course, is that our Constitution did not enshrine libertarianism. The longer answer is that what constitutes serious interference with another's rights is a matter of considerable dispute. Just by adding the limitation "serious" to the phrasing, you've set your position apart from some purer versions of libertarianism, which would hold that you don't have any right to interfere with my rights in any way.
Let's take smoking on a public street. We each have an equal right to be on the street. You're smoking. But your second-hand smoke is leaving your body and unavoidably invading my lungs. Have you seriously interfered with my rights?
How about noise ordinances? I think that the guy 2 houses down playing his boom box at 120 decibels in the front yard at 3am is pretty seriously interfering with my right to sleep quietly on my own property. Which prevails, my right to quiet or his right to play really loud music which spills over onto others' property?
What about property rights? I imagine you don't much care for zoning regulations that tell you whether you can keep a junky car in your yard, or limit what kind of structure you build on your own land. Well, what if I buy all the property around yours and erect a 20 story building all around you, right up to the property line? Suddenly, you can't grow your tomatoes in the backyard, your grass dies from lack of sun, maybe a tree falls down because its roots were severed by the pile drivers (the roots of course having extended into the underground area of his property). Has he affected your property rights? Seriously?
Life is not so simple as you paint it. Almost every action you make interferes with the activity of some other person, somehow. It is entirely proper for people to use the government to hash out the answers to these difficult questions.
PatHMV,
You're right, that's why I included the word "seriously".
And again, just because the Constitution does not specifically enumerate something as a "right", doesn't mean it is forbidden. Hence the 9th Amendment, which ain't worth the letters any more.
I am not naive,living together is a give-and-take by all sides. E.g. I try my damndest to avoid blowing my rhetorical smoke so you must breathe it and you allow me some leeway to err and misjudge the prevailing winds. We do informal negotiating of this kind all day long. It is when some group(s) prevail on Government to enforce their world view and Government is corrupt enough to cater to them and my liberty be damned, that I draw the line. Or do you think that the best solution to all problems is for Government to take a piece of everybody's liberty?
By the way, I do have some dead cars on my property and my neighbour has a hog penned next to the fence (I am not making this up, no zoning here). There are some kids playing band and partying across the street. As long as they do it only occasionally, all right with me. Live and let live.
There is nothing wrong with libertarianism, except the absolute variety.
I'm collecting USSC citations to the Declaration, which seems to be a nontrivial number, though far less common than references to something like the Federalist.
Our Organic Laws have not been repealed, have they?
After the Declaration was included in the United States Code, each state entering the Union was admitted by an act of Congress which provided that the new state "shall always be republican in form and shall not be repugnant to the Constitution of the United States and the principles of the Declaration of Independence."
In response to the substantive due process of the Dred Scott decision, Abraham Lincoln said (in 1858):
"If that Declaration is not the truth, let us get the Statute book, in which we find it and tear it out! Who is so bold as to do it! If it is not true let us tear it out! Let us stick to it then, let us stand firmly by it then."
As for experimental drugs, a couple or more centuries ago, most medical treatments were pretty much experimental in the face of impending death due to disease.
As for Organic Law, I believe the Articles of Confederation are included as well.
The words "due process" refer to the process that is legally owed, i.e. owed according to the law of the land. It does not refer to a process that is owed according to compelling interests, or according to presumptions, or according to judicial notions of liberty and justice. If a person is incarcerated after receiving all --- not some, but all --- protections owed according to the law of the land, then that incarceration is by due process of law.
Judicial usurpation of the legislative function is tragic, outrageous, and dangerous. The Abigail Alliance decision amounts to a slight glimmer of hope that maybe legislative power will one day be restored to the American people. I doubt that the proponents of the dissent in that case fully appreciate the extremely corrosive effects of disenfranchising the American people over the past four decades.
I agree with Orin that Congress ought to let dying people use whatever the hell drugs they want. And maybe the Constitution could be carefully amended to prevent such outrageous laws. But the amending should be done according to Article V rather than according to a handful of federal judges, IMHO.
By Magna Carta, chapter 29, no man ought to be taken or imprisoned, but by the law of the land. And the lex terrae is not confined to the common law, but takes in all the other laws that may be in force, such as the civil and statute law. For centuries, British statute has explained lex terrae by the words "by due process of law", which means "by a legal authority." And no one should doubt that an act of Congress, signed by the president, pursuant to an express delegation of power in the Constitution, is the supreme law of the land, and that its enforcement by the executive branch is therefore enforcement by legal authority.
The objection is an easy one to respond to. As to original intent, the Declaration continues to be good if not the best evidence. Nothing in the Constitution suggests that liberties are to be forsaken with its adoption.
A better argument to undermine the Declaration is to focus on the absence of 'equality' and 'women.' An amendment to make the Declaration more complete is certainly in order.
The Fifth Amendment does not quite suggest the implied conflict. The Declaration says "That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed." Thus, the role of a Government is to secure such rights- an even more clear statement of the intent.
As to the Fifth, its provisions are useful only so far they advance liberty, equality and the like for men-- not a man, but men. This is the balance that should be made in proper due process.
I have not heard why should the Declaration NOT be given weight? We know about the conflict with slavery that led to the ridiculous analysis in Dred Scott and many other similar cases. Prejudiced Supreme Court opinions are a dime a dozen over the last two hundred plus years. That should be no surprise in view of the mortals who staff the court- being true to the creed is difficult. Boasting about the creed is easy.
This is why Justice Brennan stands out in being true to the creed. His efforts and those of Thurgood Marshal and many others allow the present generation can boast of the creed of liberty.
As to ignoring people like Justice Brennan, we should be grateful for having the opportunity to have our cake and eat it too-- for the time being until our liberties get reduced sufficiently to make apparent the folly of taking liberty for granted.
Some analysis suggests that we should look to why the Congress should not have the power to control what medications people take to prolong their lives. Congress has been given no such power by the Constitution. Indeed the opposite is true. Powers not enumerated have been expressly reserved for the States and the people. There is no reason to condemn someone to certain death over procedural niceties that the Congress has not time or inclination to fix in a timely manner.