I was recently contemplating how ambiguous English is — though I imagine this is true in large measure of all commonly spoken human languages — and I was reminded of this cool example. Take the word "and"; surely that must be about as clear as it gets. It isn't used figuratively; it doesn't have slang meanings; it's eminently concrete and functional.
Then think about the phrases "I like coffee and tea" and "I like whiskey and soda." How can English speakers even function? And yet we generally manage just fine.
By the way, if anyone knows the original source for this observation, please let me know. I vaguely recall having seen it in a case discussing statutory construction, but my quick search failed to uncover it. UPDATE: Commenter Andy Grewal comes through -- the source is Judge Rogers' dissent in OfficeMax v. U.S. (6th Cir. 2005), which uses "beer and wine" and "bourbon and water." Thanks!
(Or "I'm glad I'm a man and so's Lola.")
I suspect that English is like any other language--Context is everything. English /can/ be used ambiguously. But its immense vocabulary allows for greater precision than, say, French. Aroma, bouquet, scent, musk, stench, perfume, odor . . . You can express a lot of subtleties with a collection of words like ours.
ROGERS, Circuit Judge, dissenting. A host separately asked two prospective guests what they liked to drink. One said, "I like bourbon and water." The other said, "I like beer and wine." When the second guest arrived at the event, the host served the guest a glass of beer mixed with wine. "What's that awful drink?" said the guest, to which the host answered, "You said you liked beer and wine." Replied the guest: "Pfui! You know what I meant. Quit playing word games and get me something I can drink."
Of course the host was "playing word games," because the meanings of both "I like bourbon and water" and of "I like beer and wine" are clear. In the first sentence "I like" applies to "bourbon and water" together, whereas in the second sentence "I like" applies to each of "beer" and "wine" separately. Stated differently, the preceding words are distributed over the conjoined elements in the second sentence, so that the meaning is "I like beer and [I like] wine." But the preceding words are not distributed over the conjoined elements in the first sentence, so that the meaning is "I like (bourbon and water)." In each sentence the word "and" has the same conjunctive meaning -- the difference lies in whether the preceding words are distributed over the conjoined elements or not. Whether to interpret the preceding words as distributed over the conjoined elements or not depends on the context of the sentence, and what we externally know about the conjoined elements. Given what we know about the social context, and what we know about bourbon, water, beer and wine, the meanings of the two sentences are not at all ambiguous.
At this point, from the back of the room, Saul Kripke says dismissively: "Yeah, yeah." The speaker halts for a few seconds, folds up his notes, and the talk is over.
I don't know whether this story is apocryphal or not, but I like it all the same.
I wouldn't say that this insight was not unoriginal.
Then there are things like the effects of the lacking comma:
When are we going to eat, Dorothy? becomes When are we going to eat Dorothy? A slightly different meaning.
If you like this sort of thing, you might treat yourself to some of the writings of J.L. Austin who, besides being a fine philosopher of language, was an engaging and charming stylist. His book on performative utterances, How To Do Things With Words should be must reading for law students. And he has a wonderful essay analyzing the statement "There are biscuits on the table, if you want some."
As opposed to trying to learn it in front of your physics teacher?
1.) I will be happy if given both a pizza and a cake.
2a.) I will be happy if given my choice of a pizza or a cake.
2b.) I will be happy if given my choice from a pizza and a cake.
3.) I will be happy if given either a pizza or a cake; I don't care which one.
(In #2a, #2b, and #3, I'm on a diet and will be unhappy if given both a pizza and a cake.)
This ambiguity shows up in Linear Logic, which deals with an agent in a world that changes over time rather than with the unchanging truths of classical logic. In constrast to the familiar AND and OR operators of classical logic, linear logic has 3 fundamental conjunction/disjunction operators:
(1) "both __ and __",
(2) "either __ or __, at the agent's choice", and
(3) "either __ or __, with the choice externally imposed".
Most the legislative history has been destroyed, but "and navigation" was added by a judiciary committee, not the waterways and harbors committee where the bill originated.
Any comments most welcome.
It is a linguistic fact that in some languages, e.g., classical Latin, negatives act like in arithmetic -- a double negative is underestood by native users as a positive -- and in some languages, e.g., English before Latinate grammarians got their hooks into it, piling on the negatives acts as an intensifier. One of the early Anglo Saxon chronicles, to emphasize the novelty of Viking raiders, wrote something that might be directly translated as something like: "No one had never seen no ships like that never before."
By the way, the "Yeah, yeah" story is learned by undergrad linguistics majors in every linguistics department in the country. In each one the name of the visiting lecturer and the location of his talk is different. To my mind this strongly suggests that the story is an urban myth.
Here's an interesting article on the ambiguities in faced by a translator, written by a long-time professional UN translator: http://claudepiron.free.fr/articlesenanglais/translation.htm
Same with the Easy/Hard business. It's not so much that some languages are harder to learn than others, it's that every language is relatively harder for someone to learn when that language is further in characteristics from a language the learner already knows well. Did I, as a native speaker of English, find the German case/number/gender system particularly difficult? Not really. Would monolingual speakers of Mandarin find it more troublesome to learn? Almost always.
It would seem that the test of a language is how precise it can be, when ambiguity is suspected. "I'd like a martini with X oz of this and that, mixed together (shaken not stirred...), and served with an olive placed into the fluid," Granted, this isn't a phrasing I'd use with a bartender who should know what the drink is, but if I suspect he did know, I'd go with the potentially opaque "I'll have a dirty tom collins" or some-such.
Personally, a little ambiguity's an OK thing, even if only the natives get it. I'd be bored to tears talking in engineer or science speak all day with people who I suspect can handle the more figurative stuff. I'll take the monthly mistakes for the sake of beauty and parsimony.
1.) I think I'll pull the lever for this one.
2.) I believe the above-quoted statement is a correct interpretation of the question at hand, and if that statement were given as one of several options on a mechanical voting machine, I would select and operate the lever that corresponds to this option.
Or, to go back to the tree-cutting experiment someone mentioned earlier, it only becomes difficult to explain it because native speakers have such an intuitive sense of its meaning, they rarely stop to consider how the phrase was derived. We can say that we will cut a tree down because we are referencing orientation: it is currently standing upright, and it will shortly be lying on the ground. We can say that we will cut a tree up because we are referring to the count of its pieces: it is presently one tree, but it will soon be several logs and a large pile of smaller branches.
It was J.L. Austin getting pwned by Sidney Morgenbesser at Columbia.
I agree to a large extent, but the problem is that English has pretensions to be an international language, used just as much by non-native speakers as by native speakers.
I've read that Chinese is even worse than English in ambiguity (for translators anyway), and that French is relatively precise, often over-precise. Personally, I think that Esperanto has a great mixture of precision, expressiveness, and flexibility (but maybe I'm biased, since I'm familiar with it).
To some degree, yes, but not completely. "Cut up/down a tree" is not ambiguous; it just uses 'down' and especially 'up' in highly idiosyncratic ways that can take some time to fully master for a non-native speaker.
Any language can be completely precise when ambiguity is suspected, through some manner of circumlocution. However, very rarely is potential ambiguity noticed when the sentence is being said or written; more often it falls to the listen to misunderstand without realizing it, or wonder about the intended meaning when the speaker is no longer readily available. Here are some examples in English:
International Civil Aviation Organization -- is it an organization for international civil aviation, or an international organization for all civil aviation, whether international or intranational?
Japanese encephalitis vaccine -- A vaccine for Japanese encephalitis, or a Japanese vaccine for encephalitis?
Put in database -- (a colleague wrote this on a paper they gave me at work) Does that mean that the paper was already put in the database, or that it needs to be put in the database?
fighting Iraqis -- Are the Iraqis fighting or being fought?
He insulted the chairman even more crudely than the previous speaker. -- "than the previous speaker did", or "than he insulted the previous speaker"?
Faithful or not, he loved her. -- Whose faithfulness is being questioned, his or hers?
... as if time, like wine, improved poetry. -- Is the comparison that wine improves poetry or that time improves wine?
(Some of the above examples were taken from here, others from articles I found here.)
It should be mandatory for lawyer-types to take linguistics.
Anyone familiar with how languages work would laugh at this thread as though it were monkeys discussing sign language.
That being said, sometimes I'm amazed at the amgibuities legislatures don't consider when they write statutes (or maybe they want it that way, knowing their judges are more likely to uphold the meaning they desire).
The main defense is social awareness and literary context, which can be on short supply, but at the most basic levels, I think we have two issues with language in general: Word issues (definitional ambiguity, which I love since its possible to get plenty of puns and innuendos), and structural issues (most of the one's from your examples).
Definitional issues are probably unavoidable since we probably only have a limited room for vocabulary in our brains, and I'd think even with a language like esperanto, one will eventually have people who play with the language, looser usage and all the sorts of things that give us our prescritivist vs descriptivist conflicts in english.
Structural issues are more interesting. I like Latin's way of having the declensions of adjectives match the modified words, for example, but even that can get a bit ambiguous (especially with the lack of definite articles and such). I'm not familiar enough with esperanto to comment on its attempts to fix the issues, but I do think that languages tend to correct themselves over time to the people that speak it, and that the more egregious issues are evolved away, so I'm generally a fan of the establishment ones (I don;t have any data to support this, however, and my knowledge of OE and ME are middling at best).
I guess if I could sum myself up, I;d say the key to english's success as a lingua franca is the sensitivity of its speaker to foreign people trying to speak it, and the awareness to avoid idiom except where it's explicitly presented as such.
Esperanto is unambiguous in the specific examples above, except for the ICAO, which according to the title of the Wikipedia article just copies the English, though Esperanto does have a way of making it unambiguous.
Esperanto is not overly precise. There is still some syntactic ambiguity, and certainly there are plenty of opportunities for puns, which Esperanto speakers take advantage of to the same degree that other speakers do. (I know an Esperanto speaker who has some kind of a pun almost every time I speak to him.) I've tried learning and using a language which was designed to have zero syntactic ambiguity (Lojban) and while the experience was very interesting in what it teaches you about language in general, it is very difficult to use properly and neither necessary nor desirable for everyday communication.
Beer and wine is fine;
Wine and beer is... gay.
Lojban sounds interesting, btw. Thanks for the link.
The key is, read what you wrote before you post. It should only take a second, but it will save you from humiliation.
as a long-time student and speaker of mandarin, i thought the same of that language when i first began my studies. mandarin has an uncommonly large number of homophones and near-homophones (see, e.g. this poem composed entirely of the sound "shi"). when one speaks quickly, in brief phrases, and/or without *context* (i.e., uttering sequences of unrelated thoughts), a speaker's meaning can be difficult to grasp. (this feature of the language is unique to its spoken form, as most words in mandarin, homophones included, have a unique logographic indetifier.) the meaning of each phrase and utterance becomes much clearer when situated in context.
the idea that mandarin is "ambiguous" can only be maintained when the language as spoken is divorced from context. but as my third-year chinese instructor chided me years ago: "who told you not to pay attention to context?!"
As used in the Revised Code, unless the context otherwise requires:
(F) "And" may be read "or," and "or" may be read "and" if the sense requires it.
This uses a bit of 21st century jargon, but it makes the point somewhat better than "Yeah, yeah."
We can say that we will cut a tree down because we are referencing orientation: it is currently standing upright, and it will shortly be lying on the ground. We can say that we will cut a tree up because we are referring to the count of its pieces: it is presently one tree, but it will soon be several logs and a large pile of smaller branches.
I think this is over-rationalizing an idiomatic usage of the preposition "up." I would guess that "up" in "cutting X up" is equivalent to its usage when we talk about "messing" something "up," "dressing" something "up," or "cleaning" something "up." We're not talking about the orientation OR the count of the indirect object. It's more a sense that the messiness, dressiness, cleanliness, or "cut-ness" of the object is being increased by our action.
One Ward Farnsforth of BU I know has been working on the fundamental ambiguity of language regarding statutory interpretation. I'm not sure what his findings might be but it will be interesting, I'm sure. This is a great example.
And I love Judge Rogers' dissent. One reason I love it is that Judge Rogers was a longtime Law Professor at the University of Kentucky, and he is I believe now stationed in Lexington. His claim that "I like bourbon and water" is "clear" takes on all the more significance when you consider that he has been living in Kentucky for at least 10-20 years. It really is beyond contention, whether you're a lawyer, a local party guest, or Wittgenstein himself.
I would be quite disappointed, to say the least, if a US court upheld a punishment finding that it was indeed cruel, but not unusual (especially if the unusual-ness is measured by frequency of employment as a punishment), thus failing a two-part 8th Amendment test.
My mother(father)'s sister(brother)'s child is my first cousin.
My first cousin's child is my first cousin once removed (one generation)
My mother(father)'s first cousin also my first cousin once removed (one generation the other direction)
My child's relationship to my first cousin's child is that of second cousin.
My child's relationship to my first cousin's grandchild would be that of second cousin, once removed.
"What is this thing called love"?
or
"What is THIS thing called, love?"
Is the moon's name Endor, or do the Ewoks live on a moon around the planet Endor?
As for English, all I can say is that it's a slovenly woman who cooks carrots and peas in the same pot.
"Of course the host was "playing word games," because the meanings of both "I like bourbon and water" and of "I like beer and wine" are clear. In the first sentence "I like" applies to "bourbon and water" together, whereas in the second sentence "I like" applies to each of "beer" and "wine" separately. Stated differently, the preceding words are distributed over the conjoined elements in the second sentence, so that the meaning is "I like beer and [I like] wine." But the preceding words are not distributed over the conjoined elements in the first sentence, so that the meaning is "I like (bourbon and water)." In each sentence the word "and" has the same conjunctive meaning -- the difference lies in whether the preceding words are distributed over the conjoined elements or not. Whether to interpret the preceding words as distributed over the conjoined elements or not depends on the context of the sentence, and what we externally know about the conjoined elements. Given what we know about the social context, and what we know about bourbon, water, beer and wine, the meanings of the two sentences are not at all ambiguous"
is so lost on an autistic no one will get any objections from persons with autism that the English language is ambiguous and creates *the autism communication gap*.
I thought law schools were trying to get lawyers to write sentences with more clear meaning these days. What happened to that idea?
"Here's an example where "and" can mean basically the same as "or", but where "or" has two very different meanings:
1.) I will be happy if given both a pizza and a cake.
2a.) I will be happy if given my choice of a pizza or a cake.
2b.) I will be happy if given my choice from a pizza and a cake.
3.) I will be happy if given either a pizza or a cake; I don't care which one.
(In #2a, #2b, and #3, I'm on a diet and will be unhappy if given both a pizza and a cake.)
This ambiguity shows up in Linear Logic, which deals with an agent in a world that changes over time rather than with the unchanging truths of classical logic. In constrast to the familiar AND and OR operators of classical logic, linear logic has 3 fundamental conjunction/disjunction operators:
(1) 'both __ and __',
(2) 'either __ or __, at the agent's choice', and
(3) 'either __ or __, with the choice externally imposed'."
The problem is, standardized linear tests are of the 1930s era of scientific udnerstanding of intelligence.
But with the advent of computers, scrolling pages, and hyperlinking, linear thinking is at a disadvantage.
It is sort of like cave men who continued fighting with clubs when modern men invented the rifle.
Oh, here we go again ... why do all the *neurotypicals* feel such a perseveration to arbitrarily supply uncomplimentary modifiers to a person with autism's "literalness," like "fanatical" and "mentally ill?" Don't tell me, duh, this is why we have all those standardized "mental thinking style" tests to ferret out all the autistics who just happen to think in a different non-linear more computer-esque 3-D style that gets the *neurotypicals* so worked-up they become obsessed with why autistics are *different*? This is like asking why there are so many different shapes of sugar cookies. Why? Just because... some like to eat Christmas trees and other like to eat Snowmen or Holiday bells.
My opinion about the ambiguity found in the English language is that it is usually precipitated a deliberate tactical manuever mostly by lawyers to take advantage and hedge bets in the event the future just might erupt into litigation. For example, I saw a great contract for a several million dollar development project that left several blanks spaces unfilled -- ooooh the ambiguity!
Additionally, persons with autism do have deficits in pragmatics, and it is typical for numerous *neurotypicals* to deliberately make vague and ambiguous English statements by communicating only the gists to ensure persons with autism cannot follow the conversation. The English language is sufficiently specific, however, to state things with more particularity -- unless one is a legal opportunist.
The equivalent to those who state ambiguous gists when speaking English can be found in the difference between Modern Standard written Arabic and most spoken Arabic, especially the numerous dialects -- spoken Arabic is much harder to follow primarily due to leaving off gender and case endings of who/what is being referred to, as compared to when a new Arabic learner sees it written, what has been said is clear. This is especially true when women are trying to follow the conversation of men, or Americans are trying to follow the conversation of native Arabic speakers.
I never took Mandarin, which I have been told is difficult. However, I am not sure it is the ambiguity that is the real thinking problem associated with speaking/writing in multiple different languages, but rather the fact there is a unique thinking process, way of coonceptualizing things, and order of thought specific to each different language that makes it hard for a native English speaker to transit between different languages.
Russian, for example, requires an English speaker to think in advance exactly what order words said will have to be stated, in a different manner than speaking in English. Spanish has way too many idioms, and conversational Spanish speeds along quite fast. If a native Spanish speaker doesn't want to be understood, he or she just speaks at a greater speed. I know some of my friends who have lost me in the middle of conversations by this technique.
I actually found Arabic to be the easiest in terms of being very phonetic and havign orderly predictable rules of language, easier in fact than English but for my being a native English speaker. One just has to get used to writing from right to left and in the Arabic script. It is best to begin learning Arabic by speaking it before writing it, like a child learns language.
I think the reason people are finding ambiguity in the 'cut the tree down' vs. 'cut the tree up' example is due to the device of rearranging the word order to assert a claim there is ambiguity where there is none.
The proper phrase is 'cut up' the tree, describing an act one does applied to many other objects 'cut up' -- e.g., cakes, steak, trees, dress material, etc. Whereas, 'cut the tree down' describes what gravity does when one makes a vertical cut into a tree trunk, thereby functions as a shorthand way to describe the motion of the tree under conditions of gravity once the vertical cut is made into the tree trunk.
If one has never made a vertical cut into a tree, one would not understand. As it is with almost any human experience.
It is like asking why pig threads are like jazz, to use a different example of innuendo and colloquim. "If you have to ask, you don't understand."
but there's nothing "only" about syntactic ambiguity. Writers who wish to be precise -- and that ought to include both legislators writing bills and judges writing opinions -- should be sensitive to potential ambiguities (of various kinds) so they can choose to avoid them.
I wouldn't have bothered to say something so obvious except for the lovely irony that b's comment is itself an examplar of one of the common sources of syntactic ambiguity in English, the placing of the adverb "only"where it syntactically modifies the entire predicate when the obvious meaning applies it to one specific element.
Compare:
it's ambiguous only on the level of syntax
with
it's only ambiguous on the level of syntax, not unintelligible
As a one-time grad student in linguistics, I heartily endorse the suggestion that familiarity with it is useful to lawyers.
my placement of the word "only" in the comment above was both right and true. it's meaning is only ambiguous if you assume it means other than what it says.
professor volokh had suggested that the entire english language was ambiguous. i responded by saying that the phrase offered in support of this argument was "only ambiguous on the level of syntax."
though your placement of the adverb makes perfect sense, my meaning should be read as written, that is: "the phrase is not ambiguous, and it can *only* be considered as such when parsed on the level of syntax, without respect to context."
as someone with graduate degrees in both linguistics *and* law, i heartily endorse the suggestion that that you (i) be less verbose, and (ii) disabuse yourself of straw men, when posting snarky comments on law blogs.
the shame. the horror.