I'm finishing up the third edition of my First Amendment and Related Statutes textbook, and for it I wrote up a brief summary of the libel law rule when a speaker (e.g., a newspaper, a blogger, a book author, and the like) accurately reports someone else’s statement, which turns out to be false and defamatory. Since people had asked me about this in the past, I thought I'd blog my summary here.
Assume that blogger Alan writes, "Betty alleges Charlie committed armed robbery." Alan’s statement is literally true: Betty did make the allegation. But the statement Alan is reporting on (Betty’s statement) is false, and Alan has the mental state that would make him culpable if he were the original accuser (for instance, he entertained serious doubts about the truth of Betty’s allegation, which is enough to make him liable under a recklessness theory, even if Charlie is a public figure).
a. The general "republication rule" is that a speaker is responsible for the factual assertions in others’ statements (assuming the speaker has the constitutionally required mental state), even when he expressly attributes the statements to others. The truth or falsity of Alan’s statement is evaluated as to the allegation that it repeats (Betty’s report), and not only as to the assertion it literally makes (that Betty reported it). Restatement (Second) of Torts § 578.
And this is true even if Alan distances himself from the allegation, for instance by saying that Charlie has denied the statement, or that Betty has reason to lie. The principle is that "Tale bearers are as bad as tale makers."
b. Some recent cases disagree, and evaluate the statement’s truth based on whether the allegation had indeed been made, not based on whether the allegation (which the statement reports) is true. See, e.g., KTRK Television v. Felder, 950 S.W.2d 100 (Tex. App. 1997); In re United Press Int’l, 106 Bankr. 323 (D.D.C. 1989). This, though, is a minority view; the view mentioned in (a) remains dominant.
c. But say that a reporter is covering a trial, in which witnesses are making assertions that the reporter knows are false, or knows are likely false; or say a reporter is reporting on some official government report. The law has long recognized that such speech must in some measure be immune from liability, even when under the general rule (see 6.a above) the reporter’s speech would be actionable. Under the common-law fair report privilege, the reporter and the newspaper are protected against liability for evenhanded and substantially accurate reports of government proceedings. In many states, this is an absolute privilege, applicable even when the reporter knows that the statements within those proceedings are false (or are likely to be false).
In the other states, though, this privilege is merely a "qualified" privilege, which means that it can be lost when the reporter is acting with "actual malice." Such a qualified privilege still offers some protection, for instance when the statements are about a private figure and would thus be actionable if said negligently -- the reporter would then get the benefit of the "actual malice" test under the qualified privilege, rather than just the negligence test that would be applicable without the privilege. But if the reporter knows the statement in the government proceeding is false (or is reckless about the possibility), he and his employer can be held liable. The Supreme Court has never decided whether an absolute fair report privilege is constitutionally mandated.
d. What if the statement is outside a government proceeding? Consider this incident, from Norton v. Glenn, 860 A.2d 48 (Pa. 2004): "[City councilman Glenn] claimed that [council president Norton] and [city mayor] Wolfe were homosexuals and ... strongly impli[ied] that Glenn considered Norton and Wolfe to be ‘queers and child molesters.’ ... Glenn [also] asserted that Nortion had made homosexual advances toward Glenn which escalated to Norton grabbing Glenn’s penis ...." A newspaper published an article accurately describing the charges, and quoting Norton’s unequivocal denial; the newspaper didn’t adopt or concur in Glenn’s statements. Norton and Wolfe sued both the newspaper and Glenn. The jury in the lawsuit against Glenn found that the statements were false.
e. Some courts would hold that the newspaper would nonetheless be protected under a First Amendment "neutral reportage" privilege, because the charges themselves were newsworthy even if they were false. (Why might that be?) "[W]hen a responsible, prominent organization ... makes serious charges against a public figure, the First Amendment protects the accurate and disinterested reporting of those charges," even when the reporter has serious doubts about the accuracy of the charges. Edwards v. National Audubon Soc’y, 556 F.2d 113 (2d Cir. 1977). Some later cases have extended this to certain charges on matters of public concern against private figures, and to statements made not just by responsible, prominent organizations but by any public figure, or even by any nonanonymous source.
f. Other courts, however, have rejected the neutral reportage privilege. In Norton v. Glenn, for instance, the Pennsylvania Supreme Court held that Norton’s and Wolfe’s lawsuit against the paper could go forward, and the paper could be held liable if it published Glenn’s statements knowing of a high probability they were false. The case eventually settled for an undisclosed amount.
Do you mean KTRK Television v. Felder, 950 S.W.2d 100 (Tex. App. - Houston [14th Dist.] 1997, no pet). Why does no one outside of Texas cite or reference our arcane writ and petition history? ;)
Does anyone have citations to cases where a libel charge was upheld despite absolutely no false statements?
Would I then be liable to Person Y? That seems...faulty.
That is true, but the Supreme Court has already limited the "truth defense" in ways quite relevant to this rule. For example you can't say, "It is my opinion that X is a child molester," and then claim this is not libelous because it is merely your opinion. Your statement might literally be true -- you do think he is a child molester -- but if he is not actually a child molester, your statement might be defamatory (depending on standard of fault, etc.). Similarly, if I know for a fact that X is not a child molester, I shouldn't be allowed to escape liability by "laundering" my statement through someone else.
In these cases, though, I would argue for a higher standard of fault -- at least actual malice and perhaps even actual knowledge. I should only be liable for repeating someone else's defamatory statement if I know if is untrue or should have known it is untrue. Anything less than that is troubling.
For what it is worth, I think Tarheel has proposed a good standard.
So the two kinds of speech restrictions (libel and hate speech) are qualitatively different?
I can see how that would be the case, but that doesn't strike me as a terribly logical system.
Doesn't seem reasonable.
But what do you think, EV? You clearly pose a question for thought, but we have to guess what your answer is.
There's an old saying that goes, "you can't defame the dead."
JB: Note that there is no "hate speech" exception to the First Amendment; the quoting-"nigger" argument generally comes up in the context of professional ethics or the government's power as employer, not in the context of civil (or criminal) liability. The analogy might be interesting nonetheless -- I need to think more about it -- but I just want to stress that the analogy is limited in that "hate speech" and "libel" are not parallel categories for First Amendment purposes. (Whether and when such statements might be actionable under hostile environment harassment law, which I've argued is in some instances unconstitutional, is a different story. I know of no hostile environment harassment caselaw relating to the quoting issue.)
Sean O'Hara et al.: Generally speaking, simply giving the evidence on the other side, and even explicitly expressing doubt, doesn't provide immunity (setting aside those states which recognize some version of the neutral reportage privilege). Whether explicitly expressly confidence the allegation is false -- e.g., "X was accused of doing something, but he has been exonerated" or "X was accused of doing something, but I know this isn't true" -- suffices to avoid liability is a tougher question. The cases I've read are mixed on the subject, but there are very few of them, especially when a flat rejection of the quoted accusation is involved.
Consider: "We know that Alan is a liar, because he said Bob attacked him, but Bob was out of state at the time" makes you liable to Bob.
"It is claimed by the prosecutor that [my ex-wife] Abby and I abused our children, which is false." Even answering the charges against me makes me liable to Abby.
For example, if I read Reporter Snuffy's account of how Glenn accused Norton and Wolfe of pederasty etc. with no evidence, it might make me conclude, not that Norton and Wolfe are pederasts, but that Glenn is a yahoo and loose cannon whom I should not vote for next election. By withholding this allegation, the reporter is depriving me of important information.
Hmm.
- Alaska Jack
I've been wondering about this myself.
In New York, judges are allowed to review the complained of libel to determine if they are capable of a defamatory meaning.
It seems to me (although I have no caselaw to back it up) if your quote of the initial libeller (X in the above case) is one that is disparaging and calls it into question, then that is not really defamatory of the target (Y).
IOW, using mnarayan's example, Y has not really been defamed because the gist of the report is that X is a jerk who spouts off unsubstantiated, if not false, accusations.
I hope so; otherwise, the description of Norton v. Glenn in Eugene's original post might be defamatory. And libel casebooks might be very difficult to write.
"X says Y is a homosexual-but theres no evidence of that." or is that still liable?
well yes-except for libel you have to show you were damaged-at least i think-so casebooks and stuff like this would probably not further damage the reputations of the people involved.
This is one reason why I'm not a lawyer. It seems to me that in both cases the quoter is doing pretty much the same thing, and I just can't wrap my brain around the idea that it should have different results.
Are there any presumptions regarding mental states? Is it reasonable to assume that a newspaper editor has the mental state and motivation that editors usually have, until persuaded otherwise?
yep i didn't see the second paragraph of standerd A.
however-while it has been clear that the republisher can be liable even if he does not vouch for the authenticity of the statement(as EV said and as in the restatement)...and the restatement claims that he can be liable even if he disagrees with the statement or claims its probably untrue...the restatement cites cases where the person's only real defense is that he didn't vouch for the truth.
there is a distinction between not vouching for the truth of the statement one the one hand-and calling it into question on the other...i just did some digging and really couldn't find a case either in the restatement-or a case that is cited in a case linked to by the restatement-where someone was held liable in the ladder case-but i could be missing something.
Courts are not supposed to pay any attention to evidence of motivation. Just because a newspaper editor has had run-ins with a particular politician and has shown personal animus towards him does not mean the editor acted with the proper mental state to be liable on a particular occasion.
The problem is that the legal term for the required mental state -- actual malice -- confuses many courts into looking for evidence of "malice" even though that is supposed to be irrelevant.
I have to agree with those above who point out penalizing reporting on the statements of a city councouncilman deprives the public of valuable information on thier officials. Merely saying that X put forward unsubstantiated claims is insuffient for the public to assertain the degree of disconnect from reality.
Consider the following:
"I can't allege that Mr. X is a vicious baby killer who eats kittens alive because then he could sue me, or even sic the cops on me in Colorado for alleged criminal libel."
That is on its face a simple statement of law. Is this itself grounds for actual litigation or criminal charges?
Consider further this:
"I'm not saying that Mr. X. performs fellatio on underage Doberman Pinschers. Heh-heh, I sure don't want to be sued."
That last illustrates perfectly what I mean.
although it should be pointed out that criminal liable laws are pretty much zaped now in nearly every jurisdiction.
if its true that "x says y is a homosexual but i cant vouch for that" could be liable
than why on earth cant
"im not saying that y is a homosexual-i don't want to get sued" also be liable?
on the other hand-your
"I can't allege that Mr. X is a vicious baby killer who eats kittens alive because then he could sue me" is probably controlled by the "truth is an absolute defense" doctrine
You might want to add another paragraph to your summary discussing an online exception under 47 USC 230. Under 230, the lack of an exception for the blogger who quotes the defamer does not apply to the facilitator of the blogger, even if the facilitator knows (or has reason to know) of the falsity of the claim by the defamer, or the knowledge (or reckless disregard) of the blogger as to the same.
This seems particularly relevant given the recent news reports over juicycampus.com.
I should also add that I would think reporting on comments made by a city councilman outside a meeting that follow on comments made at a meeting would fall into the government affairs category. Possibly even if they weren't a follow-on as they give insight into the dynamics of the city government.
That said, I agree that defamation law is a confused/incoherent area of law that is, more than most other areas of law, plagued by trial courts that don't understand the rules and more often than not get it flat wrong.
im pretty sure that truth is an absolute defense-and that would include a statement which is "reasonably susceptible of a defamatory meaning" AMJUR LIBEL § 249
I think if the statement includes a laugh (as the one Crafty Hunter came up with did) and let's say a wink, then I'm not sure you would be in the clear. The question is what the gist of the comment was, not what it's literal meaning was.
"I'm not saying that Mr. X. performs fellatio on underage Doberman Pinschers. Heh-heh, I sure don't want to be sued."
... can be refined, perhaps usefully, to:
"The reason why I don't say that Mr. X. performs fellatio on underage Doberman Pinschers is because I don't want to be sued."
The first layer of meaning, of course, is the factual statement itself, and the second layer is the more subtle aspect that out of all the possible things the man could have said, he chose not to talk about how to grow roses or about a recent victory by a sports team, but about his reluctance to make that specific allegation, and further that it was because of laws forbidding him to do so without the risk of being destroyed financially. At least, I hope this is an accurate dissection.
Another, fairly similar statement with an interesting twist, which (hypothetically) appears on YouTube:
"I learned today exactly why owning a gerbil is illegal in California. (said with a large smirk) Thank you, R****** G***! (followed by sniggering and cackling)"
I need not explain that the above contains no actual statements of fact, accurate or not, other than having allegedly learned something about the (presumably hidden and shameful) impetus behind specific legislation.
Further still:
"I understand that allegations of bestiality have been circulated recently about a man who appears to be extremely similar physically to Mr. X, who when asked about these allagations, exploded into a tirade about minding your own goddamned business."
(The one outright misstatement in the above hypothetical statement is that Mr. X said directly that the questioner should mind his own business, with a probable implication to the average man that Mr. X is indeed performing unnatural acts and merely wishes that people would look away from this).
The same logic applies to statements about financial misconduct, or family misconduct, or any other potential minefield of human conduct. I used bestiality for the examples because it's fairly simple, evokes strong emotional reactions, and I think doesn't confuse the issue as would, say, alleged insider trading or allegedly importing Cuban cigars in defiance of existing law.
It is possible to refine and refine such statements into a thin smear (I offer the pun purposely) of innuendo which (unlike the last example) contains no misstatements of fact at all, but which nonetheless can be said to lead a listener into inaccurate and otherwise libellous beliefs.
I could go into much more detail about semantic trickery, but it is to be hoped the point is clear. It seems that much libel law as it exists now is essentially an attempt to frighten people into not committing "thoughtcrime", even if the recourse (in the United States) is "only" civil and not criminal. This is the slippery slope well followed, that in the end, it's all about using the heavy hand of law to frighten people into not saying anything at all that could possibly lead to false impressions by the most knee-jerk and paranoid listener.
At what point does the listener himself become responsible for his own voluntary thoughts and feelings?
OK, but what if we replace "Betty" with "the State of California". (Because Charlie who may in fact not be guilty has actually been charged with armed robbery). Is Alan still committing libel?
Help me out here. Is motive irrelevant to the republication of the statement, or irrelevant to intent to cause harm, or both? Can motive be relevant to a defense, even if it isn't to a plaintiff's claim?
I ask 'cause I don't know.
ok your probably right that semantic meaning doesn't trigger a truth defense-that it must be the gist of what your saying is true not the semantic meaning..
my bad
Let's confuse the issue further, while we're at it:
Alan says on his blog, "I heard Betty say that she heard the State of California is considering prosecuting Charlie for armed robbery."
(This in a case in which Charlie forcefully seized property he said belonged to him, from a man Charlie alleges took it from him unlawfully with which to begin, and in doing so briefly flashes a hidden club which Charlie says was merely a sturdy steel flashlight with dead batteries. Further, the District Attourney actually did consider it briefly according to unconfirmed reports, but dropped consideration of criminal charges).
Might as well toss in hearsay and lots of difficult qualifications.
As to republication, I really don't know but I assume the law is the same as if you had said the statement yourself originally. Thus, all that matters is that you had the required standard of fault (negligence, actual malice, whatever) when you decided to republish. It should not matter that your motive was to damage someone, as long as you were not negligent or (roughly speaking) reckless.
As to intent, motive is supposed to be irrelevant -- at least where actual malice is the required standard. Of course, in the real world judges and juries always use the fact that publisher A has a long-running dispute with Politician B and has told people he hates him as a proxy for actual evidence of recklessness in deciding to publish something defamatory. This is why 40 percent of plaintiff-friendly verdicts in libel cases get overturned outright on appeal.
On the last question, I don't know but that is an interesting question for sure.
The Court rejected the "public interest privilege" asserted by the former Public Safety Director with regard to the Director's summary of allegations contained in a publicized investigative report that had found the allegations "unproven" and "suspect," because the evidence could support a determination that the Director had a "high degree of awareness of [the statement's] probable falsity."
And if I'm not trying anyone's patience, are there certain reputations that are not protected? For instance, if Theodore is a drug dealer, and Woodrow says "Theodore is selling bad ganja weed" can Theodore sue Woodrow? What if the reputation is not illegal, but disfavored, like "Theodore is a Photoshopping pornographer," assuming that Theodore is some other kind of pornographer?
I think I'm going to have to go with "no law". But I'd shed no tears to see a journalist sanctioned for deliberately quoting a liar, and carefully refraining from exposing the lie.
One is when you republish another's defamatory comments. You essentially repeat the damage their defamation did. Saying "Jack said Edward is a child molester" can do just as much harm (or more) as the harm Jack did when he said that. In fact, the repetition is the harm of the original statement.
The other is when you say something literally true but reasonably implies something that is defamatory. "I have no reason to think Jack is not a child molester" might be an example of this, as might, "Jack might be a child molester".
Is that it? And does anyone have any citations to cases where the statements made were literally true and not crafted deceptively, but defamation was found.
For example, is there any case where someone said something like "I think Charlie is a child molester" and can establish that they really did think that, and that their sole purpose in making the statement was to communicate that they thought that and yet defamation, slander, or libel was found? I just read through the elements of things like defamation and false light and they don't seem to require an intent to cause harm to reputation.
So let me get this straight... suppose a presidential candidate, let's call him "Barry," has a crazy preacher named "James." The preacher says that AIDS was introduced into America by Donald Trump as part of a larger racist conspiracy against black people. So then Barry's opponent, Hillary, says, "Barry's preacher is so crazy he accused Donald Trump of introducing AIDS into America."
Then Donald Trump can sue Hillary?
That CAN'T be right.
In other words a successful libel verdict should require that the speaker acted to induce damaging beliefs about someone that weren't justified by he evidence he possessed at the time of the speech. This would allow lawsuits in the case of, "There is a rumor going around that Hillary Clinton blows horses." when context shows that this statement might induce someone to believe that Hillary really does do something of this kind. However, this standard would block lawsuits in the situation where someone reports, "A prominent Obama supporter made the absurd claim today that Hillary blows horses," assuming they in fact did so.
Libel law, however, is just really really messed up. The problem is that the common law that our torts have derived from was formed at a time when most people lived in small closely knit communities with a clear notion of what was damaging speech. In such a circumstance people could be reasonably held responsible for spreading rumor since they could reasonably be expected to judge the reliability of the individual who reported the news to them and charged with going back to the source to verify the story if they really wanted to repeat it. Moreover, there were common community standards that made it quite clear what was and wasn't libel. However, none of these assumptions really apply in the modern world anymore.
For instance when should it be libel to alledge that someone came out of the closet. Gay communities would view this as a positive thing. On the other hand many other communities would view it as a grave insult. If the speaker views the remark as a compliment but it actually damages the subject is that libel? What if the speaker has malicious (common language concept) intent but the remark brings praise from the subject's community? When am I in danger of a libel suit for suggesting that someone is gay?
In short I think the whole concept needs to be thrown overboard and rejiggered for a different age.