The Volokh Conspiracy

None of the Usage Dictionaries Support the Theory That "None" Is Only Singular:

A correspondent writes, apropos an earlier post,

"None" is singular[, as in "]If none of these choices IS accurate.["]

I hear elementary grammatical errors on National Public Radio, and realize it is not the standard setter it thinks it is.... I seldom tune into the conspiracy any more because you seem to have drifted from public issues to personal issues .... Still, I expected these opinions to be expressed correctly. Very disappointing ....

Well, returning to public issues, I should stress that all members of the public have a First Amendment right to be as disappointed as they please. But shifting from sentiment to substance, it seems to me that my correspondent's only legitimate objection is indeed only a "personal issue[]" — the correspondent's esthetic preference. When it comes to claims of objective "error[]" or "correct[ness]," the authorities that strike me as reputable, namely leading dictionaries of usage, take the view that "none" can be either plural or singular.

My favorite, the Merriam Webster Dictionary of English, for instance, reports that, "Clearly, 'none' has been both singular and plural since Old English and still is. The notion that it is singular only is a myth of unknown origin that appears to have arisen late in the 19th century." It buttresses its assertions with quotes from many sources, including the King James Version of the Bible, W.H. Auden, and G.K. Chesterton. Fowler's A Dictionary of Modern English Usage, Garner's A Dictionary of Modern American Usage, and the Harper Dictionary of Contemporary Usage take the same view.

So even if one takes the view that correct usage is decided by The Authorities rather than by common usage, here the prominent authorities seem to take the view that "none" can be either singular or plural. Before accepting assertions that the plural "none" is "error" or "[in]correct[]," we should ask exactly what authorities outweigh the dictionaries, Auden, and Chesterton. Likewise, before we accept the view that correct usage is decided by Abstract Logic rather than by common usage or authorities, we should ask why the none-as-singular-only view is indeed a logical imperative, as opposed to being an arbitrary assertion.

Anderson (mail):
None = n[ot] one.

"None are acceptable."

"Not one are acceptable."
3.26.2008 4:52pm
Duffy Pratt (mail):
None of this make any sense.

In some contexts, I think "none" is quite clearly singular. In other contexts, it may not be so clear. So I'm of at least two minds on this, and of them, none are quite made up.
3.26.2008 4:54pm
alias:
You could almost start a separate blog with all of the prescriptive vs. descriptive posts that appear here.

My general rule is to rely on my gut instinct. If I find your usage awkward or revolting, the burden is on you to show that it's incorrect.

If the way I use a certain word turns out to be incorrect, then it's acceptable because it's in broad public use. If the way you use a certain word differs from the way I use it, and my way is correct, then your usage is unacceptable and I reserve the right to judge you for it.

Applying that to this situation, "none" can be either singular or plural.

That settles it as far as I'm concerned.
3.26.2008 4:58pm
James Lindgren (mail):
The rule in English is "notational agreement," ie, according to the meaning intended. If a plural meaning is intended, the plural is proper. If a singular meaning is intended, the singular is proper.

The idea that none is singular is one of those schoolmarmish bits of nonsense that is passed down by oral tradition, but only rarely finds its way into serious grammar books.

Webster's Dict of English Usage, which you cite, says that no one knows who invented this bit of folklore.
3.26.2008 5:01pm
OrinKerr:
FWIW, I looked this one up before I posted the allegedly-offending post. I googled "none is" and "none are", and the authorities I found suggested that both are correct but that "none are" sounds better to most modern ears. That's why I picked it.
3.26.2008 5:02pm
spider:
"all members of the public has a First Amendment right to be as disappointed as they please"

I like how Professor Volokh makes a plurality mistake in a post about plurality. [EV: D'oh! Fixed, thanks.]
3.26.2008 5:06pm
JDS:
How about "number", as in "A large number of these posts is annoying"?
3.26.2008 5:07pm
John Gillmor (mail):
There are other problem words in English. For instance, the use of loan as a verb. Drafters of loan documents see it used as in "the bank loans money to the borrower". Contrast this to "friends, Romans, countrymen, lend me your ears" which sounds much more gramatical to my ear--the OBE cites use of loan as a verb even back in the bard's time.
3.26.2008 5:15pm
Anderson (mail):
Note also that "usage" guides tell you how a word is used in practice.

If that's how you decide what's "correct," then by definition, 51% of the population can't be wrong.
3.26.2008 5:17pm
Hoosier:
It isn't plural OR singular in denotation. It denotes nothing. We would say "Nothing is." But I suspect that's because of the -"Thing" at the end. It sounds better.

But "none of these is free"/"none of these are free"? The second sounds better.
3.26.2008 5:18pm
wuzzagrunt (mail):
Before accepting assertions that the plural "none" is "error" or "[in]correct[]," we should ask exactly what authorities outweigh the dictionaries...

Sister Maria Goretti of the Sisters of St. Joseph. Take it up with her...if you have the sand. Don't say I didn't warn you.
3.26.2008 5:20pm
KeithK (mail):
The dictionary definitions of plural are:

[R]elating to, consisting of, or containing more than one or more than one kind or class

That is, more than one. A simple analysis Based on this definition says that "none" cannot be plural since it is not more than one (less, in fact). To someone thinking logically it just doesn't make sense for it to be plural.

But then since when is language necessarily logical? Language is created and used by people who (unfortunately?) very often do not act logically. The fact is that if enough people say something a particular way it tends to become "correct" even if it doesn't make sense in the abstract.

I'm sure that the word for none is singular in Esperanto.
3.26.2008 5:22pm
M.E.Butler (mail):
How can you waste time with such trivial matters when well over half of Americans cannot conjugate lay and lie correctly?
3.26.2008 5:25pm
Alan Gunn (mail):
Anderson's post illustrates the source of the error, I think. Some people think that "none" is just another form of "not one" (indeed, I was taught this in high school, along with a lot of other things that aren't true). But it isn't. So when "none" means "not any," as it often does, it's plural.
3.26.2008 5:32pm
spider:
M.E. Butler - How about George W's difficult relationship with the simple past tenses of "bring" and "drag"?
3.26.2008 5:35pm
Eugene Volokh (www):
John Gillmor writes: "There are other problem words in English. For instance, the use of loan as a verb. Drafters of loan documents see it used as in 'the bank loans money to the borrower.' Contrast this to 'friends, Romans, countrymen, lend me your ears' which sounds much more gramatical to my ear--the OBE cites use of loan as a verb even back in the bard's time."

What exactly do you mean by "problem words"? If you mean "words that sound bad to me," that's between you and your ear. But if you're trying to make some claim that there's something wrong under some standard other than your esthetic one, what exactly is that standard? Indeed, the OED attests "loan" as a synonym for "lend" as far back as the 1200s, and certainly to the 1500s and 1600s. What's the "problem"?

KeithK: If your "simple analysis" used by "someone thinking logically" were right, then wouldn't "none" be incapable of being either singular or plural? And, if so, what then would we do? The logic of mathematics goes only so far with the English language, as your second-to-last paragraphs acknowledge.
3.26.2008 5:45pm
Vermando (mail) (www):
I think one reason some people have such strong feelings about this is that the SAT's tested this point for awhile - it was one of the 'counter-intuitive for most people' higher grammar points you needed to know to break 650 or 700 or whatever was good back then.
3.26.2008 6:01pm
Anderson (mail):
So when "none" means "not any," as it often does, it's plural.

Ah, and next you'll be telling us that "any" can be either singular or plural.

What next? Dogs and cats, living together???
3.26.2008 6:02pm
Conspiracy Fan:

I hear elementary grammatical errors on National Public Radio, and realize it is not the standard setter it thinks it is.... I seldom tune into the conspiracy any more because you seem to have drifted from public issues to personal issues .... Still, I expected these opinions to be expressed correctly. Very disappointing ....


Don't listen to the haters! I enjoy both the Conspiracy and NPR as much as ever. Look at how you turned lemons into lemonade with this fun post.
3.26.2008 6:05pm
Q the Enchanter (mail) (www):
Good heavens. Your correspondent should kindly remove the cork.
3.26.2008 6:06pm
Anderson (mail):
it was one of the 'counter-intuitive for most people' higher grammar points you needed to know to break 650 or 700 or whatever was good back then.

Worked for me!
3.26.2008 6:06pm
anym_avey (mail):
Anderson's post illustrates the source of the error, I think. Some people think that "none" is just another form of "not one" (indeed, I was taught this in high school, along with a lot of other things that aren't true). But it isn't.

By entymology, it IS true. However, since the plural usage apparently dates back to at least the ninth century, methinks person would have to be sitting on a most substantial cork to make a cause around it.
3.26.2008 6:10pm
Alan Gunn (mail):

Ah, and next you'll be telling us that "any" can be either singular or plural.

Well, yes, although "Is any of our children learning?" doesn't sound right to me, somehow.
3.26.2008 6:28pm
Alan Gunn (mail):
anym_avey,

I know that "none" was originally formed from a couple of Old English words that meant "no" and "one." Those words were not, however, "no" and "one." According to Webster's, they were "ne" and "an." The claim of error seems to me to derive from a mistaken belief (a belief held by my 11th grade English teacher) that "none" is just an abbreviation of the modern English words "no" and "one."
3.26.2008 6:43pm
Anderson (mail):
Okay, another argument, for legal writing.

If there's a widespread, but incorrect, belief that "none" is singular ...

... and if the use of the singular "none" is unlikely to annoy those who think it can go either way, whereas the plural "none" will annoy those who think it must be singular ...

... and if such pedants might be the judges or clerks reading your briefs ...

... then which form should you use?
3.26.2008 6:50pm
dave h:

What next? Dogs and cats, living together???


I believe the correct usage is "Cats and dogs, living together"
3.26.2008 6:55pm
Crunchy Frog:
ME Butler: but what percentage of Americans has had a conjugal lay, only to lie about it later?
3.26.2008 7:00pm
anym_avey (mail):
Those words were not, however, "no" and "one." According to Webster's, they were "ne" and "an."

...and carried over to the modern form relatively intact.
3.26.2008 7:01pm
Qwertz (mail) (www):
What of the two senses of none? In one sense it means not one among many, and in the other it means no portion of the whole. The former is plural, and the latter is singular, perhaps?

~Q
3.26.2008 7:16pm
KeithK (mail):

KeithK: If your "simple analysis" used by "someone thinking logically" were right, then wouldn't "none" be incapable of being either singular or plural? And, if so, what then would we do? The logic of mathematics goes only so far with the English language, as your second-to-last paragraphs acknowledge.


EV: I originally typed "A simple (simplistic?) analysis" but then dropped the parenthetical because I didn't like the way it sounded. I agree with you that language isn't logical - even though that might occasionally offend the ear of some logically minded.
3.26.2008 7:29pm
NicholasV (mail) (www):
The dictionary definitions of plural are:

[R]elating to, consisting of, or containing more than one or more than one kind or class

That is, more than one. A simple analysis Based on this definition says that "none" cannot be plural since it is not more than one (less, in fact). To someone thinking logically it just doesn't make sense for it to be plural.

What about negative three? It isn't greater than one. Does that make it singular?

My thinking is:

* I have three muffins. I eat one.
* I have two muffins. I eat one.
* I have one muffin. I eat one.
* I have no muffins.

This makes me think that the only integer that is singular is one. All others - greater than one, zero, and negative - seem plural.
3.26.2008 7:44pm
NicholasV (mail) (www):
Hmm, I suppose it's also valid to say "I have no muffin" but that sounds strangely profound. Kind of like "There is no spoon". Except when someone other than Keanu Reeves is saying it.

Has anybody else noticed that if you say muffin or read enough times in a row, it seems like a very strange word?
3.26.2008 7:46pm
The Tensor (www):
It may be true that the dictionary definition of plural is "relating to, consisting of, or containing more than one or more than one kind or class", but it's important to notice that logical number and grammatical number aren't the same thing in English. In particular, zero is grammatically plural:
Two men/*man were/*was at the party.
One man/*men was/*were at the party.
Zero men/*man were/*was at the party.
I'd also planned to cite the English proverb "There are none so blind as those who will not see" as an example of plural agreement with none, but a little googling turned up an even more interesting 1671 citation for that proverb that reads, "Ther's none so blind As those that will not see". In that version, none appears to be both singular (agreeing with is) and plural (agreeing with those), in the same sentence.
3.26.2008 7:58pm
steve_roberts (mail):
Err, what is this ? Constitutional law expert professor wasting brain energy on whether 'one of the only' and 'none are' are grammatically correct ? Oh, hold on. Just got a message from SOCUS that 'Congress shall make no law' means 'Congress shall make any law it likes, unless we disagree with it'. You're right, grammar is all, or - and perhaps you can source the quote - "it all depends what the meaning of 'is' is "
3.26.2008 8:47pm
Alan Gunn (mail):
There's an excellent discussion in Eric Partridge's Usage &Abusage. Partridge quotes a thoughtful and amusing letter from R.B. Hamilton which concludes by saying


To say ... "none of the newspapers has appeared" is no better than to say "No newspapers has appeared". Indeed, it is worse; for vulgarity may be forgiven, but pretentiousness carries its own heavy punishment."


Mr. Hamilton's letter, in recommending "No, there are none" as a possible answer to the question, "are there any plums?", observes that if one had to say "there is none," the question would have to be either


"Is there any plums?", which is bad grammar, or "is there any plum?", which is not English at all.
3.26.2008 8:49pm
BruceM (mail) (www):
While there are lots of "either way is acceptable" words in the English language (which I think is what one poster meant by "problem words"), I've always liked the "none is singular" connotation. My logic is that: (1) when used as the subject of a sentence, it's not plural (whatever it may be), and (2) I think of "none" as being somewhat of a contraction of "not one" (though I don't believe that's the actual etymology of "none"). In English, something is either singular or plural - there's no neutral form. If I'm not sure that it's singular, but know it's not plural, thus I can be confident it's singular by default. That's how "none" is. But "none" is inherently a descriptive noun, which is unique, and thus causes the problem at issue. That problem would be solved if there were a neutral verb form vis a vis singular/plural.

I believe consistency is preferable to 'kinda sounds better in general usage.' "None of the children was hurt in the accident" does sound a bit odd, there's no question about it. I suppose we could create a rule that says the verb takes its number from the object to which 'none' refers (if any). In the example I just gave, since "children" is plural, the verb would therefore be plural (None of the children were hurt...).

I don't think people really think about it in casual speach, though, and just like the sound of a plural verb form following a plural noun and a singular verb form following a singular noun. "...children were..." and "...child was..." regardless of the context and structure of the whole sentence. That much I certainly disagree with.

Also, I could swear I've read a few grammar/style books that have stated "none" is singular. I can't cite one and I don't have any in front of me, but as an English major and a law school graduate I've read my fair share of English grammar and style books.

Anyway, just my 2 cents, Orin is free to disagree.
3.26.2008 9:07pm
Javert:
The Authority on this, and all such matters, is H. W. Fowler (A Dictionary of Modern English Usage). "It is a mistake to suppose that the pronoun is sing. only &must at all costs be followed by sing. verbs &c,; the OED explicitly states that pl. construction is commoner."
3.26.2008 9:49pm
Dilan Esper (mail) (www):
If that's how you decide what's "correct," then by definition, 51% of the population can't be wrong.

With respect to language, in the long run, this is basically true. If a majority adopt it, it will eventually be seen as correct.
3.27.2008 12:16am
stunned:
This is interesting, and I think I recall being taught the "rule" that none is singular when I was still being taught things like that.

I'm generally a pretty strong descriptivist when it comes to language, though there are a couple of things I can't deal with: 1) when people substitute similar-sounding words for others with a different meaning (e.g., most commonly I think, "flaunt" for "flout") and 2) expressions where the term is rendered nonsensical in the colloquial usage (e.g., "could care less" for "couldn't care less")
3.27.2008 12:27am
Tom Tildrum:
Strunk and White:

With none, use the singular verb when the word means "no one" or "not one."

[incorrect]: None of us are perfect.
[correct]: None of us is perfect.

A plural verb is commonly used when none suggests more than one thing or person.

[correct]: None are so fallible as those who are sure they're right.
3.27.2008 12:31am
Syd Henderson (mail):
My personal usage generally goes like this (I think):

If the object that "none" refers to is singular use the singular verb and if its plural, use the plural verb.

None of the sausages are moldy.
None of the sausage is moldy.

None of the guests were poisoned.
None of the water was poisoned.
3.27.2008 12:44am
Personally Disappointed:
I couldn't agree more with the correspondent's principal complaint: too many personal posts. Bernstein is the worst offender. It's fine when personal observations come from someone clever who actually has an interesting point to make, but do any of us really care about Bernstein's house hunting or a t-shirt he owned 16 years ago? No, none of us do.
3.27.2008 4:25am
Mike G in Corvallis (mail):
I hear elementary grammatical errors on National Public Radio ...

Forget the grammatical errors for a moment. I want them to quit calling the second month of the year "Feb-oo-wary"!
3.27.2008 6:00am
Arkady:
Hmmm.

"Many are called, but few are chosen."

"Well that's just not true at all. None is called, and none is chosen. Wait a minute, I meant to say 'none are called and none are chosen'."
3.27.2008 7:02am
Voolfie (mail) (www):
Ah, mental masturbation...what fun.

As Bruce &Syd point out...

NONE = "Not One"
NONE = "No One"

N[ot]ONE OF THE CHILDREN ON THE BUS (a defined group) WERE HURT.

N[ot]ONE OF THE ALTERNATIVES (an undefined group) IS ACCEPTABLE.

N[o]ONE HERE TODAY (a defined group) ARE ABLE TO DEAL WITH THIS

N[o]ONE HAS APPEARED (an undefined group) WHO IS ABLE TO DEAL WITH THIS.

BUT...Was the Black Knight grammatically correct when he said, "None shall pass!"?
3.27.2008 9:47am
PLR:
There is a subculture of corporate lawyers who argue about crap like this when you have a warranty such as "Except as previously disclosed, Seller is not a party to any pending lawsuits, arbitrations or other proceedings for the resolution of any disputes." Some will take out their red pens and make all those nouns singular for fear that there will be precisely one undisclosed lawsuit, which would not constitute a breach of warranty since the Seller only warranted there were not plural lawsuits.

If there is a judge who actually decided a controversy on such a reading at some point in the past, I hope he's dead.
3.27.2008 10:36am
KevinM:
There's an inherent paradox in assigning a number to the absence of something. Is it the absence of something in particular? The absence of anything?

(Why is cheese sandwich better than perfect happiness? Because nothing is better than perfect happiness, and a cheese sandwich is better than nothing.)

I tend to use "is" or "are" depending on the sense. Do I mean "not one" or is my meaning closer to "not any." "None" can really stand for either. The former naturally takes "is," and the latter (often), "are."

For example, if I'm emphasizing that there's an existing class of persons or things, not a single one of which (considered one at a time) possesses a particular characteristic, then "is" works best.
3.27.2008 11:53am
KeithK (mail):

There's an inherent paradox in assigning a number to the absence of something. Is it the absence of something in particular? The absence of anything?


We the readers of the Volokh Conspiracy can end this divisive debate once and for all by taking decisive action! We should create a new set of forms and inflections to denote zero number. Single, plural and none. We could one words, two words and no worden or worder or something. Then the verb to be would have new forms: he is, they are, none ams or none irs.

Yeah, I think that would work!
3.27.2008 2:32pm
Arkady:

There's an inherent paradox in assigning a number to the absence of something. Is it the absence of something in particular? The absence of anything?


See F. Brentano and his difficulty with the golden mountain. See B. Russell's analgesic for Brentano's headache, The Theory of Descriptions.
3.27.2008 6:10pm
Smokey:
Maybe this will help. Redd Foxx: "My sister wanted to be a nun -- until she found out what 'none' meant."
3.27.2008 9:10pm
Mary Katherine Day-Petrano (mail):
". Likewise, before we accept the view that correct usage is decided by Abstract Logic rather than by common usage or authorities, we should ask why the none-as-singular-only view is indeed a logical imperative, as opposed to being an arbitrary assertion."

Do people really perseverate on such issues? And is there any economic value to or increased productivity resulting from the countless man-hours involved in such perseveration?

Or is this all just a mindless philosophical exercise for the benefit of pure enjoyment?

Incredible.
3.28.2008 1:06pm
lucia (mail) (www):
Clearly, rather that debating whether none is singular or plural, we can all avoid strife by avoiding the use of the word "none". Let me show how simple this is:

Some people posted these phrases in comments:

[incorrect]: None of us are perfect.
[correct]: None of us is perfect.


Try: We are all imperfect.


None of the sausages are moldy.
None of the sausage is moldy.



All sausages are mold-free


None of the guests were poisoned.
None of the water was poisoned.



All guests were unpoisoned.
All of the water is free of poison.

I think "unpoisoned" may be a made up word; it's also ugly. But I'm sure all people of good faith will agree it's worth enriching the English language with new, ugly words to avoid the plural/singular "none" controversy. Anyway, new words are useful in Scrabble, so that's a benefit.


"none are called and none are chosen'."

Substitute:

"All are uncalled; all are unchosen."


And Mary Katherine Day-Petrano, frequent commenter, closes her comment with:


Or is this all just a mindless philosophical exercise for the benefit of pure enjoyment?


I will now demonstrate the proper use of "none" in a way that avoids the "singular/ plural" dilemma.

"How many people commenting on EV's grammar blog posts think there is any increased productivity resulting from the countless man-hours involved in such perseveration?" "None."
3.28.2008 2:53pm
bittern (mail):
Tensor, I want to be at the party whut Zero Man was at.
3.28.2008 4:07pm

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