Holder, OLC, and the DC Voting Rights Bill:
The Washington Post reports:
Hat tip: Ed Whelan, who has more on this.
Justice Department lawyers concluded in an unpublished opinion earlier this year that the historic D.C. voting rights bill pending in Congress is unconstitutional, according to sources briefed on the issue. But Attorney General Eric H. Holder Jr., who supports the measure, ordered up a second opinion from other lawyers in his department and determined that the legislation would pass muster.I don't quite know what to make of this story, not being so familiar with how OLC reviews proposed legislation. First, are OLC opinions about the constitutionality of proposed legislation normally binding on the executive? OLC opinions on interpreting enacted legislation are binding on the executive branch, but I don't know if opinions on the constitutionality of proposed legislation are generally treated the same way. And what is the AG's usual role in reviewing OLC opinions about proposed legislation? I'm not really sure.
A finding that the voting rights bill runs afoul of the Constitution could complicate an upcoming House vote and make the measure more vulnerable to a legal challenge that probably would reach the Supreme Court if it is enacted. The bill, which would give the District a vote in the House for the first time, appeared to be on the verge of passing last month before stalling when pro-gun legislators tried to attach an amendment weakening city gun laws. Supporters say it could reach the House floor in May.
In deciding that the measure is unconstitutional, lawyers in the department's Office of Legal Counsel matched a conclusion reached by their Bush administration counterparts nearly two years ago, when a lawyer there testified that a similar bill would not withstand legal attack.
Holder rejected the advice and sought the opinion of the solicitor general's office, where lawyers told him that they could defend the legislation if it were challenged after its enactment.
Hat tip: Ed Whelan, who has more on this.
All Related Posts (on one page) | Some Related Posts:
But at the end of the day, if the bill passes there will be a court challenge, and a final determination one way or the other. I respect the acumen of the smart folks at OLC, but I'm very confused as to how an unpublished OLC opinion could "make the measure more vulnerable to a legal challenge that probably would reach the Supreme Court if it is enacted." It's a purely legal question; the opinion of OLC is irrelevant (as is the opinion of Ken Starr, except to the extent he makes a persuasive argument). Is the idea that opponents of DC voting would be likely to sway a court by arguing that hey, this bill must be unconstitutional, because the OLC secretly says so?
It's all about appearances. Obama will say he tried to assist his friends in DC, but the courts simply obstructed him. All the reason for the DC folks to support Obama even more -- maybe he can do something about those recalcitrant judges.
Of course, in the last Administration they made sure the lawyers would give them that answer the first time.
I suspect the idea is that publication of the fact that the Obama OLC also thought it was constitutional helps create more of a sense that those who disagree are outliers. Of course, if Obama puts Ken Starr and Viet Dinh on the Supreme Court, that would be two votes in favor of the legislation.
Anyway, the earlier opinion and the latest are on different questions. The first opinion was that the bill was unconstitutional. The second was that a defense of the bill could be mounted. Both are true: It won't be a good defense, but it can be done.
And deserves to fail.
As for the merits, my own opinion is that the DC voting-representation bill is unconstitutional. I read the arguments by Starr and Dinh but did not find them persuasive.
As for myself, though, I find it appalling that anyone thinks the civil service lawyers ought to be making these decisions instead of the elected leaders. The OLC is just a bunch of staffers (mostly civil service staffers-- i.e., lawyers who couldn't get better jobs and who probably have strong ideological preferences). Staffers are supposed to give their best technical expertise to the organization leader, who then makes the actual decision-- in this case, What Shall the Executive Branch's Position be on the DC Bill? I do think the bill is blatantly unconstitutional, but I didn't get elected President and I'm not on the relevant court. I say: Let Holder and Obama defend the position they want in court. And the opinion of his staffers should not be admissible there.
This case does remind me of another question: How come there is such a tradition in the US, or at least in the US congress, of sticking unrelated amendments on bills? I don't think any country has a rule against this (I've been thinking about it, and I can't think of a way to write one), but I know of no country where they would tack an amendment about gun rights onto a bill about the electoral system.
In what sense could they be? The OLC cannot obligate the President to veto legislation, nor can it forbid the DOJ from defending it in court.
Hopefully the bill has a provision mandating direct review by the SCOTUS so it can get resolved without dragging it through the DC CA.
All executive power in our federal government is, after all, reposed in the President.
While OLC attorney-advisers are indeed "staffers" they are hardly unable to get another job--in fact, an OLC stint on your resume is a ticket to a great private sector job in this town and the younger attorney-advisers are almost all COA/SC clerks. If you don't know that, not sure you can meaningfully contribute to a discussion of the OLC's role at DOJ.
I think the bill is almost certainly unconstitutional, and am still waiting to hear these "reasonable arguments" on the other side. Maybe there are precedents I don't know of that can be read to support Congress's power to do this, but nobody has ever told me what they are and I'm not motivated enough to do the research anyway. I just stick this in my (ever-growing) list of things that suck about the Constitution.
I still think the Democrats should ram statehood through the Senate. The citizens of the District are morally entitled to the franchise, and adding two ultra-safe Senate seats would have obvious partisan benefits. It also has the benefits of being less politically infeasible than retrocession: there's no way Maryland is taking the District given how screwed up it is.
The IL Constitution
The IL Supreme Court hasn't interpreted the provision incredibly strictly, giving deference to the legislature, but they have required a "natural and logical connection" between the matters (People v. Reedy).
Both are narrowly about the rights of citizens of DC.
PS. Guns have no rights.
I believe it's mostly a procedural dodge. There are lots of rules about introducing new bills, but amendments to existing bills don't have those limitations.
Also, the amendment might not have enough support to pass on its own, but if it's successfully attached to something else it's also not so odious as to kill the entire measure.
Also, when compared to fusion governments such as the UK, the executive has far less influence over what measures are brought up for a vote and what the final form of any particular bill will look like. Whether that is a feature or a bug is left as an exercise for the partisan hacks.
After all, couldn't one be personally opposed to guns, but recognize that the right to a gun is protected by the Constitution?
If that were true then Congress could by legistation provide D.C. with 3 Senators, which would violate the equal suffrage provision of the Constitution.
I think that kind of super powers reading of the District clause is grossly mistaken.
Dan Schmutter
Any citizen of the next state in line to get a house seat (since the total number is fixed) should suffice, no?
Entirely academic constitutional puzzler -- can Congress retrocede parts of DC to MD unilaterally? The Constitution requires the consent of the state legislature to remove parts but not to add them ...
While the IL Supreme Court is many things, bashful is not one of them.
In the vagaries of US congressional committees, it is probably easier to add an amendment than to write a whole new bill.
How 'bout the citizens of Puerto Rico?
Guam, Virgin Islands, Marshall Islands, Samoa, Palau ...
This is way offtopic, but I always thought the insular cases were/are a disgrace to the US Constitution. A territory either is or is not part of the United States. We fought a hard war to prove that Britain did not have the power to govern colonies without granting them franchise ...
They've turned down the statehood option, so apparently they're satisfied with the current situation.
The bill is flagrantly, patently unconstitutional, since it violates the constitutional requirement of Article 1, Section 2 of the Constitution that the “The House of Representatives shall be composed of Members chosen every second Year by the People of the several States.” Washington, D.C. is not a state. The Founding Fathers specifically intended to limit Washington, D.C.’s influence over Congress. The Fourteenth Amendment likewise states that “Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers.”
Supporters of the bill argue that the bill is constitutional under the District Clause in Article 1 of the Constitution, which says that Congress has the power of “exclusive Legislation” over the District. They say its language trumps other constitutional provisions. But that argument is frivolous. Allowing grants of power, like the District Clause, to override other provisions of the Constitution, such as the Fourteenth Amendment, is dangerous, since those other provisions also contain crucial civil liberties. Under this logic, Congress could legislatively authorize warrantless searches and seizures in the District, effectively overriding the Fourth Amendment. And it could summarily punish innocent people through “bills of attainder,” which are prohibited in the very same article of the Constitution — Article 1 — as the requirement that only “states” receive Congressman. If that requirement can be overridden by the District Clause, as bill supporters claim, then why can’t other requirements in the same article, like the ban on bills of attainders?
Before, it had always been assumed that grants of power are limited by other constitutional provisions, not the other way around. After all, the Constitution grants Congress the power to regulate interstate commerce, but it can’t use that to override the First Amendment, by restricting commercial speech, national campaign ads, or speech on the Internet. Congressional laws regulating the publishing industry, interstate advertising, web sites, and other forms of interstate commerce have been struck down as a violations of free speech, without anyone suggesting that Congress’s power overrode the First Amendment. Similarly, a federal appeals court struck down the Elizabeth Morgan Act as a bill of attainder in 2003, even though it was legislation specific to the district.
Attorney General Holder’s political meddling is a breach of his promise not to politicize DOJ’s legal positions, and to take legal positions based not on “a political process,” but rather “based solely on our interpretation of the law.”
But this shouldn’t be a big surprise, coming from an Administration that has routinely broken campaign promises, such as Obama’s promise of a “net spending cut,” which he broke in myriad ways, such as a budget that will $increase projected deficits by $4.8 trillion, and bailouts amounting to $8 trillion (not counting another trillion dollars for the toxic-asset buy-up program and $800 billion for the economy-shrinking “stimulus” package).
I'm not sure I understand what it would mean with respect to this law if OLC opinions about its constitutionality were "binding." The President has nothing to do with the execution of the law (at least the constitutionally questionable part of it). The only role I see is signing it or not. If the OLC opinion were binding would Obama be legally obligated to veto the legislation? That can't be right.
FIFY.
Like Bush's claims in Hamdi/Hamdan/Boumedienne, I'll let the Supreme Court, not the President, decide the matter of constitution law.
You can start lobbying the legislature of MD now -- I'm sure they're eager to add another crime-ridden inner city to the joy that must be governing Baltimore.
Alternatively, you can start drafting an OLC opinion on the power of Congress to forcibly retrocede DC to MD against (or at least absent) their consent.
This is surely true in a political sense, but does it really impact the outcome in the courts in any significant way? I mean, there's a reason courts don't typically admit expert testimony on questions of law.
That would defeat the whole purpose, which is adding a super safe Dem house seat forever.
The only way to make that happen is if DC became a part of Maryland. Otherwise, you face the exact same constitutional problems that the DC voting bill has. And have you heard a single Maryland politician suggest this? If not, I think you have your answer as to how easy it would be.
It's an interesting "as if", but I don't think that will fly with Art I (amendments notwithstanding, of course).
You must not have thought too much of Yoo et al's arguments about the extent of the president's power as commander in chief then.
Amen. Based on the reasoning in Ken Starr's piece, Congress could also grant Congressional voting privileges to Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, Guantanamo Bay, Yellowstone National Park, Yosemite, Big Bend, Grand Canyon National Park, each Indian Reservation still in existence, and each Military Base in the United States (and maybe foreign bases - Would the Congressman from Subic Bay please rise?).
Sorry, I have yet to see any non-frivolous arguments for why the D.C. Voting Rights Bill is Constitutional. I can only conclude that Eric Holder, by pushing the OLC to find that it is Constitutional, is perpetrating one really great April Fools prank, or he's looking to beat out Alberto Gonzalez for least qualified AG ever.
I was thinking of the way the various island have been alotted to different CoA districts. But I forgot that the Constitution doesn't even require that such a thing as the Courts of Appeals exists, much less how their jurisdiction should be decided. Art I does say, however, that members of Congress are elected by the "People of the Several States", and - more importantly for my suggestion - that the District of Columbia was created "by Cession of Particular States".
'course Puerto Rico's argueably different because the folks there are citizens from birth, but yeah.
The people of Guam have US citizenship by act of Congress.
Excepting that
Is there any legal significance of the OLC opinion? If so what is it? If not, then what's the criticism of the Obama administration?
Well, for one thing, DC has fewer inhabitants than any state except Wyoming. (Wiki)
Simple. Giving DC two Senators would give them representation in the Senate all out of proportion to their population. Giving them a congressman would not.
I'm not terribly familiar with territorial law, but the status of the territories is fine with me, because the territories have more de facto independence than the states, most notably exemption from federal income tax. I would advocate their having the right to vote on independence (or statehood) if there were ever a substantial movement in support of it.
D.C., on the other hand, not only has no such exemptions but is regularly subjected to gratuitous Congressional meddling or the threat of such meddling, and the citizens of the city are completely powerless to do anything about it.
This is funny, but it couldn't be more incorrect, as Starr's argument is principally based upon the Seat of Government Clause, Art. I, sec. 8, Cl. 17, which pertains only to the District of Columbia and not to any of these other places.
Agree or disagree with Starr's legal argument, it is virtually impossible for anyone to read that argument and conclude "oh, that would apply equally well to Grand Canyon National Park." I've noted a remarkable tendency for people to blithely opine "oh, that's obviously unconstitutional" without even engaging the merits of the other side's arguments.
Sense when does that matter?
Others have already pointed this out, but just to pile on: OLC attorneys, including those hired through the civil service channels rather than being politically appointed, are among the most highly credentialed and sought-after lawyers in the country. I suspect that any one of them could get a job at any law firm in the country. Some of them have left partner positions at law firms or tenured faculty positions at places like Harvard to work there. By contrast, I'm sure that there are many, many partners at top-tier law firms who would be turned down if they applied for jobs at OLC. The suggestion that the guidance of OLC is somehow tainted because its lawyers are government bureaucrats who, ipso facto, must be less qualified or capable than lawyers in the private sector is just inaccurate.
On the substantive point, perhaps this is a case of Holder following the model, laid out by Walter Dellinger when he was head of OLC, of trying to manoeuvre thorny constitutional issues so that they can be resolved directly by the judiciary, in light of that branch's traditional role as the final arbiter of the Constitution's meaning. Obviously, some people don't think this is a difficult constitutional question at all. But assuming arguendo that it is and considering its significant real-world ramifications, it seems reasonable for its constitutionality to be determined by the Supreme Court rather than the Executive branch.
Or the more-feasible option of breaking up the large states into smaller and smaller subdivisions (with the consent of the legislatures thereof) until the imbalance in the Senate is in the reasonable range (say 10:1) as opposed to the current 40:1.
Added bonus: most of California would love to get rid of those hippies in LA/SF and likewise, the hippies would love to be rid of those hicks up in Redding. Upstate NY hates NYC (despite the net northwards flow of $$$), most of IL would be glad not to be governed by the knuckleheads in Chicago ...
Whoops, meant to comment on that. MD doesn't want DC because it's crime-ridden constant headache that sucks way more in government services than it pays in taxes. The MD suburbanites already subsidize the **** out of Baltimore, leave them alone!
Are there that many hippies in LA?
Hollywood-style lefties -- hippies with haircuts.
This, BTW, is what it says on the OLC vacancies page:
I don't know the math offhand, but wouldn't adding 600,000 people or so be enough to add another House seat to Maryland's delegation? And wouldn't that Congressional district encompass DC?
I guess all "lefties" are hippies. Dont forget the spanish speaking hippies, the persian hippies, the soccer mom hippies, and the south central hippies.
I don't think the Post story said who signed the opinion. Obama's nominee to head the OLC has not been confirmed. Could it have been a career OLC attorney?
Although I happen to agree with you on the merits that the bill is unconstitutional, I can't help but notice that prominent liberals such as Ken Starr, Viet Dinh and Orrin Hatch do argue the opposite proposition.
Actually, the constitution leaves us with another option--amendment of the constitution. It would be simple to craft an amendment that gave DC a representative in the House without giving it representation in the Senate. That's my favored option.
Unconstitutional condition.
Surely if we can read "the People of the several States" to include "People not of any State", then all constitutional technicalities are out the window.
Avoiding that tax would certainly be more valuable to me than voting for anyone in the Congress of Buffoons we now have or are likely to have.
Wait . . . what? Obama's president now? OH! Well, in that case, carry on.
That we are a nation of laws and the Constitution is the Supreme Law of the land?
Or is that partisan?
Aside from it's unconstitutional, you mean?
All 538* members of the Congress are required by the nature of their job to spend a great deal of time in Washington, D.C., which necessarily entails, at least at some level, becoming familiar with the trials, tribulations, and affairs of that city. Each therefore is, in some respect, a representative of the District of Columbia and has a selfish interest in DC's well-being, thus obviating the need for separate representation.
*-Except if they're running for national political office and don't resign their seat.
Give me a break. Was it not clear what I was asking? Forgetting the constitution for a moment, what are the current benefits of such a law?
The same justification there was for having the federal district not be part of any state in the first place: having the seat of government be on "neutral ground."
John Burgess: As I've been saying for over 20 years, the answer here is not to give DC representation, but instead to free it from federal taxation. DC income tax is currently around 9.6% of federal taxes.
I've had the same idea. The downside of that idea is it would give people more of an economic incentive to settle in DC. DC should have fewer people, not more.
You are missing my point. So long as DC voting rights are pursued via unconstitutional means I will be in opposition, because I believe that the Constitution means something. That is my policy. I am not big on the ends justifying the means.
A Constitutional Amendment providing representation to DC would be fitting and proper. And it would also be a solution more likely to be respected among the people than the current Bill.
IIRC, the original purpose of having D.C. set apart, not part of any state, was to avoid any state's being able to vaunt itself as possessor of the national capital.
I doubt that the framers envisioned D.C. having quite as many full-time residents as it now does, though. I can see a case for a Constitutional amendment giving the residents a voting Congressional seat (or incorporating them into the population of Maryland for Congressional-election purposes), but it seems pretty clear that a Constitutional amendment is what it'd take.
No, Mark - you were missing my point (or chose to ignore the entire premise of my question).
Also, since DC is the national capital, even if the rest of Congress didn't care selfishly about it because they lived there, they have ample incentive to take care of the city out of national pride.
As an empirical test we could ask two things:
1. Does the Federal government subsidize DC more than it does other cities, such as Baltimore?
2. Does the DC government think the federal government will bail it out, and hence has more inefficient government?
Reason (2) is why DC should be run by the federal government instead of its citizens.
If you mean under the Article V amendment process, that is a reasonable policy question. FWIW, that has been tried before and failed the political test of ratification, whatever the policy merits.
Wouldn't your "reasoning" have applied equally to blacks living in the Jim Crow South who had the freedom to move to northern states?
The benefit of spending considerable time in a nice place pales in comparison to the benefit received from allocating funds to their home districts.
This assumes that Congressmen seek funding for their home districts out of local pride, rather than for mostly selfish reasons.
Your point makes sense if we're talking about DC becoming a state. It doesn't make any sense if we're just talking about giving DC some sort of voting rights. Allowing DC to elect a representative to the House in no way undermines the original purpose of having the capital in a federal district under the authority of Congress because DC would still be in a federal district under the authority of Congress.
Perhaps we just need to kick everyone out who is not somehow related to running the government.
I do find it interesting how land ceded to the feds was then paceled out for residental living, the history behind that might be interesting.
Fine. Accepted.
I dont believe DC will receive voting rights for constitutional reasons (Amendment is necessary) and political reasons (the nation is too evenly divided to ratify an Amendment that clearly benefits one party). I was trying to isolate both of these considerations.
Giving DC the same congressional representation as if it were a state (i.e., a House member and two senators) was a proposed constitutional amendment and failed. There's never been a constitutional amendment giving DC representation in the House only (similar to what is being proposed in the DC Voting Bill).
I don't think such considerations are very relevant today. Do others disagree?
Certainly they're less "relevant" today, in that the states are now less, um, "states" than administrative districts. We have a lot of current dangers, but individual states starting to act again like sovereign nations doesn't rank way up there.
All the same, the idea of the seat of federal government belonging to none of the states makes practical and symbolic sense.
I feel the same way about the electoral college.
Now, see, I feel completely differently about the Electoral College. I mean, quite apart from whether you want states to have their own characters, to retain a sort of corporate voice in national affairs (I do; maybe you don't), the practical problem of abolishing the Electoral College is tremendous. Do you really want to think about a close Presidential election in which the recount has to be, not in one state, but all of them?
Valid points
Valid points
The larger the pool, the less likely of the vote being close enough to merit a recall, assuming the measurement error is the same.
Wiki List of US Presidential elections by popular vote margin
But I still am interested in the process issues raised by Holder overruling the OLC lawyer(s). I wonder if the outcome would have been the same if the AAG position at the head of OLC were filled.
It may be that Dawn Johnsen, who has staked out a pretty strong position favoring OLC process independence, if confirmed would have made a stand in support of the OLC memos. (Then again, perhaps she agrees with Holder on the merits. I don't know.) Since Johnsen's confirmation has become a partisan struggle, and Sen. Specter is pressing her to voice opinions on a variety of legal issues, I expect that this incident will feed that fire somehow.
The larger the pool, the less likely of the vote being close enough to merit a recall [recount?], assuming the measurement error is the same.
It's true, obviously, that with 50 states the likelihood of a given state being "too close to call" is a lot greater than that of the whole country being "too close to call." But in 2000 the popular vote margin was about 500,000 votes, and with such high stakes and over 100 million ballots cast, don't you think there would've had to have been a nationwide recount, were the popular vote the arbiter?
Yeah, it's an exceptional case. But when an exceptional case has actually happened within the last decade, you are more or less obliged to act as though it might happen again.
So 6 of the 47 elections with nationwide popular vote reported have had a margin of victory of less than 1%. That's a little more than 1 out of 8. 3 of the 13 elections held within the past 50 years (a little over 23%) have had a margin of victory of less than 1%.
The other problem with a nationwide popular vote is that even if the final reported margin is wide enough to avoid a nationwide recount, it is more likely that the margin will be due to fraud. Voter fraud is harder to hide where elections are closely contested, and easier to accomplish in areas where one party has total control. With the current system, there's little incentive for party machines to rack up big vote totals with fraudulent votes in places with no competition. With a nationwide popular vote, that would change.
No, it wouldn't. Interesting analogy, though. I would say that the District of Columbia not getting a vote in the House of Representatives is more like the Holocaust than the Jim Crow South.
Gosh, you must be one of those fascist neocon troglydite conservatives I read about in the comments here all the time, thinking that the Constitution means something. All intelligent, compassionate, progressive folk already know that the Constitution means anything.
This may sound good as a matter of theory, but historically Congress has limited expenditures on DC. Given that long-standing practice, I'm not too worried about the theory.
Most states don't require a recount unless the vote totals are within .5% or less. Only 1960 was that close. Even then, an automatic recount rarely changes the result. Take MN, for example, as indicative of how close the candidates need to be for a recount to change the result. The difference there was roughly .007%. The closest popular vote in history (1960) was 20 times that amount.
That incentive exists in every single non-presidential election in the country right now, but it doesn't seem to affect our elections.
[1] Those who keep their children in their home districts obviously don't have to do that; those who bring them to the capital are either wealthy enough to afford private schools, or they move to the suburbs.
Isn't the part of the city south of the river part of Virginia?
Sorry, forgot to mention that HR 665 includes a provision that, for purposes of federal elections only, residents of DC will be considered residents of Maryland (but I'm not sure the same fix works for the "inhabitant" requirement, though I can see why one might argue that if it works for one, it works for both). HR 665 plus Maryland state laws modifying the qualifications for electors of the members of its lower house would pass Constitutional muster, I believe.
Other than the DC Voting Rights Act and HR 665, is there a third choice that (1) would be Constitutional, (2) doesn't involve a Constitutional amendment, and (3) would give DC residents (voting) congressional representation (besides their 3 electoral college votes which might help choose a VP who votes in case of tie in the Senate)?
I don't see how that could be enough, given that art. I (8) clearly says that DC has been "ceded" by, in this case, Maryland.
(and maybe foreign bases - Would the Congressman from Subic Bay please rise?)
There is a Congressman whose constituency includes Subic but he's Filipino and serves in the Congress of the Philippines. Subic Bay base has been closed for almost 20 years. In any case, American citizens who resided in any of the 50 states can vote by absentee ballot in the same jurisdiction they used to vote in once they leave the country.
So if I'm a California resident and I relocate to the U.K. for two years, I can still vote for Representatives and Senators from California. If I move to D.C. and establish residency, I lose Congressional representation. That's not completely indefensible but still strikes me as strange.
Most recounts don't move the total more than 0.25%. Combined with reliable optical scan technology (with second chance), even that's ridiculous. At the very minimum, it would be a good chance to get rid of this patchwork of voting methods in favor of a single standard.
Oh wow. If that's kosher, why not write
Seriously, that's the only way Bobby Rush is going down. He beat Barack Obama for that seat!
You bet. Yoo's arguments that the president can do whatever he wants as long as he invokes the Commander-in-Chief Clause and Starr's arguments that Congress can do whatever it wants about D.C. representation in Congress by invoking the Exclusive Legislation Clause are both nonsense.
I'm not saying this "tax break for D.C. residents" plan is a good idea, but this is a really stupid reason to oppose it.
No. With relatively few exceptions, blacks living in the Jim Crow South were people whose ancestors had been brought against their will to those states, while current residents of the District of Columbia, with relatively few exceptions, are either people who voluntarily moved there or people whose ancestors voluntarily moved there, even though they knew or should have known that they would be thereby be disenfranchising themselves.
We're in agreement.
I have a few problems with your argument:
1. I fundamentally disagree with the notion that you can be estopped from such a fundamental right as voting simply because you knowingly moved to a particular jurisdiction, (at least absent some extremely significant reason residents of that jurisdiction shouldn't be allowed to vote) but I suspect we'll just have to agree to disagree about this.
2. Even if you accept that voluntarily moving to DC is a good basis for some sort of estoppel type argument ("you knew the rules, so you don't have a right to complain about them") you're still left with explaining why disenfranchising DC residents is a good thing. Just because someone does not have a right to complain about something does not mean that the underlying situation is the way it should be.
3. I find the idea that you are legally bound and responsible for the actions of your ancestors (your statement "or people whose ancestors voluntarily moved there") odd and un-American in that you are made responsible for actions other than your own. You must be a big fan of reparations from descendents of slaveholders to descendents of slaves.
4. Going back to the Jim Crow South situation, you acknowledge that, although relatively few, there certainly were blacks who had moved to the Jim Crow South from northern states. Since they voluntarily moved to the Jim Crow South, wouldn't your argument against DC residents being enfranchised at least apply equally to these relatively few blacks in the Jim Crow South?
Yes, we certainly will have to disagree. I don't regard voting as a "fundamental right," but simply as an arrangement that may or may not be conducive to liberty and good government. Hong Kong, for example, was the freest country on earth, even before any of its people acquired the right to vote for the Legislative Council in 1991. I have no right to vote in the District of Columbia, even though I probably spend more of my time there than I do in Virginia, where I sleep, yet I don't think I'm deprived of any "fundamental right." (I'm presuming that your argument for voting as a "fundamental right" has something to do with having a say in the laws that one has to live under, but why that should mean only getting a vote where you live but not where you work or do business is hard to fathom.)
I didn't say it was a good thing. I was responding to the specious argument that blacks in the Jim Crow South were in an analogous situation to that of residents of the District of Columbia today.
Well, at least now we are at the bottom of the disagreement.
I think the prevailing opinion (correct me if I'm wrong) is that government by consent is an intrinsic good, preferable irrespective of the quality of government produced.
1. It was a lot more difficult for blacks in the South why didn't like Jim Crow to move away from that system (though far from impossible, as the history of the Great Migration shows) that it is for residents of the District of Columbia to move away if they really want to vote.
2. This point is demonstrated by the fact that the number of voting-age D.C. residents who live there because their ancestors moved there, rather than because they moved there themselves, is relatively small. It's certainly a damn sight smaller than the percentage of blacks in the Old South who lived there because their ancestors were brought there involuntarily (i.e., close to 100%), rather than having moved there voluntarily (i.e., pretty much 0%).
3. We are bound all the time by decisions made by our ancestors. For example, the fact that mine chose to emigrate from Ireland to the United States means that I am deprived me of the right to Irish citizenship. (If it had been my grandfather rather than my great-grandfather who was the emigrant, I'd have a chance, but as it is I'm SOL. Boo-effing-hoo.)
I acknowledge no such thing. I acknowledge only the possibility that such people existed. In any event, no one would have bothered to enact laws that would have required black immigrants from the North (but not native-born black Southerners) to sit in separate sections of buses and theaters, to use different drinking fountains, to attend different schools. But yeah, if it had been feasible to do such a thing, immigrants from the north would have had a lot less of a beef than native-born blacks would have for the same treatment. (Similarly, I always found it interesting that, back in the days of apartheid, South Africa had a problem with illegal immigration by people from other African states entering South Africa. I think a pretty good argument could be made that those immigrants had a lot less ground for complaint than the native-born South African blacks. Similarly, a lot was made, about the time of the first Gulf War, of the fact that about half the population of Kuwait was made up of people who couldn't vote because they were non-citizens. That never struck me as a terrible injustice. They could always go back to Palestine, or wherever they or their ancestors came from. (Palestinians who came, or whose ancestors came, from portions of Palestine now governed by Israel might not have as much of an option as those who came from the West Bank or Gaza, but again, Kuwait was under no obligation to take in Palestinian refugees at all, so it should have had the right to take them in under the condition that they wouldn't become citizens.))
That's a debatable point, but irrelvant here, because pretty much everybody who lives in the District of Columbia can be said to have consented to the governmental arrangements there, because the option of moving away is so readily available.
Consent does not depend on suffrage. I have no vote in the District of Columbia, and thus no power to affect D.C.'s gun control law, yet I implicitly consent to it every time I voluntarily enter the District to come to work. It's not an injustice (except in the sense that it's an injustice to everyone, resident or non-resident alike, not to be allowed the means of self-defense while in the District).
Some people voluntarily moved to D.C.
The cost of moving out of D.C. is not as high as the cost of moving out of the South.
Therefore, residents of D.C. should be denied the right to vote.
Not disputed. The proportion of all influential people who are involved in the business of income tax law who live in D.C. is likely to be higher. There will be a big incentive for people from all walks of life to move to D.C. once they find out they can save $10,000-$20,000 in income taxes.
I'm not saying this "tax break for D.C. residents" plan is a good idea, but this is a really stupid reason to oppose it.
I said it was perverse since one of the ideas of the rule of law is that rulers should be bound by the same set of laws that apply to those being ruled. I didn't say this was the principal reason to oppose it -- I think other grounds for opposition have already been covered above. What an incredibly rude response.
I dunno about that. Let's look at the Declaration of Independence:
So yeah, the government derives its just powers from the consent of the governed, and they have the right to abolish it when it becomes destructive of its ends, but it seems to me that the ENDS are what is really important, and those are to secure the rights to life, liberty, and pursuit of happiness. A government that has frequent and free elections but is in fact destructive of these ends is certainly not, in my opinion, preferable to an absolute monarchy that in fact protects the fundamental rights of the people. In practice, it's reasonable to conclude that representative government is more likely to protect the people's rights, but the rights are the end and representative government merely the means.
No, it's not irrelevant. It is a tautology that no one can freely trade away an intrinsic good (if they did, it would be an instrumental good, not an intrinsic one).
You are confusing individual consent and collective consent. By the same token, whether or not I consent to MA's gun laws (or criminal law generally) has no bearing on the legitimacy of that law -- that hinges on whether The People have collectively consented to it.
We'll have to disagree there. I believe people have the right to get what they want, even if what they want is objectively worse than some other possibility.
I read the DOI quite opposite than you, focusing on the fact that no government can be considered just without the consent of the governed. Of course, the purpose of the government is to achieve some ends, but The People can implement the mechanics however they want but cannot bind the future to any implementation. That is to say, the right to change the mechanics is inalienable.
Hypothetically then, the DOI (reifying here for ease of syntax, it's 2AM) would have no problem with The People decided to have an absolute monarchy, but it would be a funny kind of monarchy because The People would have the right to alter or abolish it anytime in the future. They cannot be alienated from that right, even by their own consent.
That's not a valid syllogism. In fact, it's not a syllogism at all.
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