In recent months, I've often run across arguments (including in comments on this blog) that certain kinds of speech ought to be unprotected because they're really "conduct," not "speech." Now these weren't arguments about expressive conduct, such as flagburning or nude dancing. They focused on speech that was written or spoken words, and the speech was seen as causing harm through its content (as opposed to, for instance, because it was too loud or said by people who were blocking traffic). But something about the words -- or the laws restricting the words -- led some to respond that the restriction was actually a conduct restriction, not a speech restriction.
This led me to decide to serialize on the blog portions of an article I wrote about the subject a couple of years ago, Speech as Conduct: Generally Applicable Laws, Illegal Courses of Conduct, "Situation-Altering Utterances," and the Uncharted Zones, 90 Cornell Law Review 1277 (2005). I much enjoyed serializing my Medical Self-Defense piece when I was working on it, and my sense was that many of our readers enjoyed it, too. Let me then take the liberty of doing the same as to this piece -- which turns out to be relevant to many hot First Amendment debates, as I hope the following will show. If you're interested in seeing the footnotes, look here.
When, if ever, should speech lose its First Amendment protection on the grounds that it’s really just conduct? Let us set aside restrictions of speech or expressive conduct based on its noncommunicative aspects, for instance because the speakers are blocking traffic or are being too loud. Rather, let’s focus on situations in which speech is restricted because of the harm that flows from its content.
Consider, for instance, a book that explains the steps necessary to commit a particular crime. May this speech be restricted on the grounds that it constitutes the “conduct” of aiding and abetting, and is thus not subject to First Amendment protection at all? Or consider racist, religiously bigoted, or sexist statements that create an offensive work environment, an offensive educational environment, or an offensive public accommodations environment. May such statements be freely restricted because they aren’t speech but rather the “conduct” of harassment?
There are at least three main types of such “it’s conduct, not speech” arguments. First, some people think speech should be treated as conduct when it has the same effects as harmful conduct and it is covered by a generally applicable law that restricts all conduct that has those effects. This can happen in many situations [for examples of each, see the footnotes here:
In all these cases, the speech would be restricted because of what it communicates -- because its content informs, persuades, or offends people -- and because of the harms that flow from this informing, persuasion, or offense. Yet some courts and commentators argue that such speech restrictions don’t implicate the First Amendment because the law in these instances punishes conduct, not speech: “[S]peech which, in its effect, is tantamount to legitimately proscribable nonexpressive conduct may itself be legitimately proscribed, punished, or regulated incidentally to the constitutional enforcement of generally applicable statutes.” Others argue that generally applicable laws should be treated as content-neutral restrictions on expressive conduct, and should thus be fairly easily upheld under the deferential O’Brien test because the restrictions on speech are “incidental” to the law’s overall thrust.
- Publishing a book that describes how to grow marijuana might constitute intentional or knowing aiding and abetting of a crime.
- Publishing a newspaper article or web site that points to an infringing site may constitute contributory copyright infringement.
- Publishing a news story that reveals the name of a witness, and thus unintentionally helps a criminal intimidate or kill that witness, may violate laws that bar knowingly, recklessly, or negligently facilitating crimes.
- Publishing a news story that reveals the existence of a wiretap may help the wiretap targets escape justice, and may thus violate obstruction of justice laws.
- Teaching one’s child racist, pro-polygamy, or pro- or anti-homosexuality views may (in the views of some family court judges) be contrary to the best interests of the child and may therefore lead the parent to lose custody or have his visitation rights curtailed under the generally applicable “best interests of the child” standard.
- Making statements that create an offensive work, educational, public accommodation, or housing environment based on race, religion, sex, age, disability, or sexual orientation might violate antidiscrimination law.
- Speaking out against a proposed group home for the mentally disabled might violate the Federal Housing Act’s ban on “interfer[ing] with any person in the exercise or enjoyment of” the right to be free from housing discrimination based on handicap.
- Engaging in speech that helps the election of an anti-war candidate may violate treason law -- which prohibits intentionally aiding the enemy in time of war -- if the speaker thinks the enemy deserves to win the war.
- Creating newspaper advertisements, billboards, or leaflets that praise jury nullification may be punishable under laws that prohibit all attempts to influence jurors.
- Producing and distributing movies that stimulate copycat crimes may constitute negligence under generally applicable tort principles.
- Giving children sexually themed material, or for that matter political material that most people view as evil, may violate laws that ban “impair[ing] the . . . morals of . . . [a] child.”
A second type of “conduct, not speech” argument is sometimes made even to defend laws that specifically target communication, such as statutes that ban the publication of bombmaking information. Such speech, the argument runs, is punishable because it is part of an illegal “course of conduct,” or is perhaps “speech brigaded with action,” a “speech act” rather than pure speech.
The argument seems especially appealing to some when the speech appears likely to cause harms that would be punishable if caused by conduct rather than speech -- when “words are bullets,” in the sense of being “a specific tool or weapon used . . . for the express purpose” of causing harm. Such arguments often quote Giboney v. Empire Storage & Ice Co., a 1949 case which asserted that “[i]t rarely has been suggested that the constitutional freedom for speech and press extends its immunity to speech or writing used as an integral part of conduct in violation of a valid criminal statute,” and that “it has never been deemed an abridgement of freedom of speech or press to make a course of conduct illegal merely because the conduct was in part initiated, evidenced, or carried out by means of language, either spoken, written, or printed.”
Courts have applied Giboney to justify, among other things, restrictions on (1) speech that advocates crime, (2) speech that explains how crimes can be committed, (3) doctors’ speech recommending medicinal marijuana to their patients, (4) speech that urges political boycotts, (5) speech that creates an offensive work environment, (6) racially offensive business names, and even (7) public profanity.
A third “speech as conduct” argument is made in Professor Kent Greenawalt’s influential book, Speech, Crime, and the Uses of Language, which asserts that certain kinds of speech -- such as offers, agreements, orders, permissions, and some threats -- constitute “situation-altering utterances” and should therefore be treated as unprotected conduct.
Finally, the “speech as conduct” argument is sometimes made to explain some of the uncharted zones of First Amendment law: categories of speech whose First Amendment status the Court has never squarely confronted, such as aiding and abetting, criminal solicitation, conspiracy, perjury, agreements to restrain trade, and professional advice to clients. Most lawyers would likely agree that such speech generally should be unprotected, or at least less protected. A common explanation for the Court’s lack of attention to these speech restrictions is that the speech is actually conduct, which the First Amendment does not protect.
Related Posts (on one page):
- Ample Alternative Channels:
- Content-Based Speech Restrictions vs. Content-Neutral Speech Restrictions:
- Free Speech, Content-Based Laws, and Legislative Motives:
- Laws of General Applicability and Cohen v. Cowles Media:
- Laws of General Applicability, Content-Based as Applied and Content-Neutral as Applied:
- "It's Conduct, Not Speech":
I take your point, but I wonder in specific about this issue. My brother, living in WA, now has a prescription for MJ and can legally grow a certain quantity for his own use.
I could see someone in his position needing a primer on how to go about this.
Now if it included ways to hide it from the law, it would be different...though hiding it in general wouldn't be due to the risk of theft.
1 and 2 may be useful to alert people how to identify and/or avoid crimes. Do you know what your children are growing in their garden? Do you already visit this Web site?
Prohibiting 5 probably would conflict with the 1st's freedom of religion clause.
Prohibiting 6 is problematic for me. I would rather know if the people with whom I work dislike me--or if they dislike something about me that they might not know. In the former case, I definitely would be looking for a new job. In the latter case, I at least would do my best to hide what is disliked. Prohibiting 6 doesn't prohibit people from disliking someone. And it doesn't prohibit them from saying so when they're not at work, or not in a work-related environment. But it may prevent a person from knowing why s/he is getting the shaft at work. It also makes it difficult for people to communicate socially at work, because of fear that someone might be offended. It's easy for lawyers to say that something would be offensive if and only if the court believes it would be offensive to the typical person. But the typical person might not know what that means.
7 and 8 probably would interfere with the right to express a political opinion (certainly 8 does). It might, ironically, inhibit people from offering suggestions for improvement. For example, re: 7, might one be afraid to say, "across the street might be a better location because of such and such," from fear of running afoul of the prohibition? Encouraging war might aid an enemy too. Would we have to prohibit people from talking about war?
Re: 9. On the one hand, if juries have the right to do so, which I suppose they do, then it shouldn't be illegal to inform them of that right. Rather, I would prohibit denying the existence of such a right. On the other hand, I wouldn't want lawyers telling juries to ignore judges instructions. And I would find it absurd to hear judges saying, "these are my instructions, but you don't have to follow them." (Sorry, but I will admit here that I like what Wikipedia has to say about this topic.)
As we get to 10 and 11, I'm thinking we're going to have to prohibit people from printing and/or distributing Bibles. Or maybe we just have to censor some parts. And sermons will have to be rated like movies are.
4, if regarding an illegal wire tap, wouldn't bother me.
Otherwise, the only benefit I can see from 3 and/or 4 is the financial reward of selling the story. Clearly, we can illegalize things that are profitable. Profit isn't sufficient defense. So, I don't see any defense.
More seriously, as a non-lawyer I've never really understood the difference between speech and action. It wouldn't occur to me to read the first amendment as implying that the government should (or even can) arbitrarily limit other forms of action.
That is, I don't see much difference in theoretical justification between the first and fourth amendments.
Saying "people should be free to do whatever they want" isn't really a complete theory because it doesn't account for negative externalities. The potential problem with a book about bombmaking isn't the voluntary flow of ideas between author and reader, or even the solitary act of making a bomb, it's the rather large nonconsensual impact on the victims. Practically speaking, that means any regulation needs to address the problem before the point of detonation. So the government should choose the least restrictive means of accomplishing that goal - having different standards for "speech" and "action" doesn't really make sense.
I've always thought that there is also another dimension to this problem: the medium. I do not think it unreasonable to argue that there ought to be stronger restrictions on what McLuhan called cool media, i.e., those which have a more visceral than intellectual impact on people. I'd be interested in other readers' thoughts on this.
I realize there is a lot of law on this. You may or may not know there is a bit of philosophy too. In particular, J.L. Austen's "How to Do Things With Words" is, like everything else he wrote, an amazing piece of work, and it analyzes how most utterances have some aspects of "conduct" and of "speech" (to use your terms) to them--very few indeed are purely one or the other.
It can't be summarized here, but I'm sure if you have not seen it you would find it interesting.
Nor is it clear why "the only benefit ... from 3 and/or 4 is the financial reward of selling the story." A story may include the name of a witness because the reporter wants to credibly point to possible biases on the witness's part, or just to give more facts to readers. A story may disclose the existence of a wiretap to illustrate how broad government wiretapping has gotten, or again just to give more facts to readers.
The reporter may well do all this for ideological motives, or just out of a motive to tell as much of the truth as possible. But even if the reporter or the newspaper publisher also wants to sell newspapers, presumably the information sells more newspapers because some readers find such a story more interesting or useful. So focusing on the presence or absence of a profit motive, or suggesting that the "only" motive is profit, strikes me as unhelpful here.
One, I'm interested in reading your article. And I'm going to have to dig up Catharine MacKinnon's Only Words and re-read it; it's a set of essays supporting a speech-as-conduct rule, although I can't remember which of the three rationales you identify she uses. I think #2, but I'm not certain.
Two, with regards to "Publishing a news story that reveals the existence of a wiretap may help the wiretap targets escape justice, and may thus violate obstruction of justice laws," it can also run afoul of laws that are more specific than general obstruction of justice statutes. Here in Minnesota, there's a specific felony, "Warning Subject of Surveillance or Search" for notifying or attempting to notify "a person" about a search warrant, pen register, or electronic surveillance. Although it does specify with intent to obstruct, etc., and I don't know how strictly that provision's been interpreted.
Anyway, interesting topic.
I've long wondered, for example, why we had to make an exception for yelling "fire" in a crowded theatre (which seems to be the hypothetical so often used). Does this happen a lot? Do people have to act like lemmings when it does? Is the loss of free speech a fair trade for the possibility that some idiots might not trample over each other?
Sure, free speech is hard. It means that we have to go after the bomb maker rather than the one who writes down how to make one. It means that sometimes law enforcement will miss something, and that sometimes people may suffer. But that's a chance that we take no matter what.
Free speech makes for a much more exciting world. Dangerous, alive. Why do we have to be such pussies?
Because computers are so narrow-minded, they often do precisely what they are told to do, which is often not what they're supposed to do, and thus they can be tricked into doing things they shouldn't.
IMHO, addressing such communications to vulnerable computers that you have no business messing with should, in many cases, be a criminal act.
On the other hand, discussing the specifics of an attack with sufficient detail to prove to a skeptic that an attack is feasible, ought to be protected speech.
And the difference between these two cases may well be the path or recipient of the communication, not the content.
Surely, computer programs can be a form of speech -- for instance, when the source code of a program is presented in a lecture or an academic article, or made available for download just as a movie or the text of an essay might be. However, running a computer program is not speech, but action.
For instance, I can easily write a computer program which, if it is run on your computer, will overwrite all your personal files with rude words. To write this program and use it as an example of computer insecurity (in a lecture or an article) is clearly speech. However, if I were to illicitly access your computer and run that program, this act would not be speech. It would be an action -- an illicit and harmful one.
There is a wide gap between writing programs and running them, almost as wide a gap as there is between writing stories of murder and actually performing murders. Those who have never written a computer program are likely to misunderstand this distinction.
There's a wide gap between the theoretical computer scientist who discovers an exploit and the "script kiddie" who runs a package of exploits and installs a root kit. (A root kit is software that takes over a compromised system.) In between is a complex, decentralized network of individuals who have mostly never met.
The scientist discovers the possibility of the exploit. Another person reads that and writes a semi-practical implementation. Another person reads that and writes an actual exploit. Another person sees that and writes a program that tests for the exploit. Another person writes a mechanism to deliver a payload. Another person packages it together. Finally, an individual uses that package to take over computers.
Every time someone writes that kind of software, it is downloaded by someone and run, like clockwork. So given that we're talking about laws that deal with the existing society, we have to accept that writing software and publishing it openly is de facto the same as running it.
I'm not convinced by your examples. I don't see the necessity for uniquely identifying the witness to show possible bias. Sounds ad hominem.
The wire tap example is tricky. How did the reporter discover this? Because, if the reporter's knowledge suggests that the target is likely to know also, then, well, that's one thing. If the reporter discovered from a source in law enforcement, then, well, that's quite another thing (and potentially a much more complicated thing--what was the motive for the "leak".). And if the reporter discovered it independently, then, well, that's even another thing. And it seems to me that that third thing is where we want to prevent the reporter from telling the world. In this case, It seems much the same as if the reporter gets a camera view of law enforcement agents in the vicinity of a crime, preparing the intercept the criminals, and puts the images on TV where the criminals can see. I wouldn't condone this.
You may not agree. Or you or someone may have other reasons to believe that these examples have other than profit as possible motives.
My point is that profit alone doesn't guarantee protection.
The line is not quite so clear -- one need not run the malicious program yourself to cause damage. Why?
Times have changed; there is no longer as clear a separation between documents and programs as there once was.
As one example, a significant part of your web browser is a set of interpreters which execute one or more programs (in a composite of html, javascript, and possibly a few others) every time it displays a web page. These languages are, by design, generally safe and constrained in what they can do, but programmers aren't perfect, and reality doesn't always meet the design goals.
If a malicious person knows about a vulnerability in your browser's handling of one of these languages, it is not necessary for them to "run" a program to exploit this vulnerability; they merely need to leave the booby-trapped program in a place that your browser is likely to find and execute -- perhaps by linking to it from a comment in a blog or wiki.
Every time the automobile companies sell 100 cars, someone takes one of those cars and drives recklessly, killing people. So selling cars is the same as negligent homicide.
(end sarcasm)
I am not so sure. Running an assistive technology program (e.g., speech voice recognition) to enable a disabled person to speak in written format might also be speech, not merely an "act" or "conduct."
Anyone have any thoughts about this?
I wonder if it is the victim of an illegal wiretap who is publishing pleadings in litigation to seek a remedy for this, e.g., 11th Cir. Glazner (en banc). Also, wonder what if additional facts are revealed that the illegal surveillance became known to be illegal as a result of testimony in Congressional hearings about U.S. Atty firings.
Surely there is no legitimate law enforcement interest in illegal surveillance, and speech urged to seek a remedy therefor must be protected.
This is obviously the wrong thread for this comment. Apologies.