Laws of General Applicability, Content-Based as Applied and Content-Neutral as Applied:

Consider a generally applicable law that is being applied to speech, but that on its face doesn’t mention speech. Sometimes, as in United States v. O’Brien, the law may be triggered by the “noncommunicative impact of [the speech], and [by] nothing else.” A law barring noise louder than ninety decibels, for instance, might apply to the use of bullhorns in a demonstration. We might call such a generally applicable law “content-neutral as applied,” because it applies to speech without regard to its content.

But sometimes the law is triggered by what the speech communicates. The law may, for instance, prohibit any conduct that is likely to have a certain effect, and the effect may sometimes be caused by the content of speech. A person may violate a law prohibiting aiding and abetting crime, for example, by publishing a book that describes how a crime can be easily committed.

We might call such a law “content-based as applied,” because the content of the speech triggers its application. The law doesn’t merely have the effect of restricting some speech more than other speech -- most content-neutral laws do that. Rather, the law applies to speech precisely because of the harms that supposedly flow from the content of the speech: Publishing and distributing the book violates the aiding and abetting law because of what the book says.

In this post and coming posts, I’ll argue that laws that are content-based as applied should be presumptively unconstitutional, just as facially content-based laws are presumptively unconstitutional. Both presumptions may sometimes be rebutted, for instance if the speech falls within an exception to protection or if the speech restriction passes strict scrutiny. But generally speaking, when a law punishes speech because its content may cause harmful effects, that law should be treated as content-based.

This analysis also cuts against some commentators’ arguments that First Amendment doctrine should focus primarily on smoking out the legislature’s impermissible speech-restrictive motivations. (See, e.g., Elena Kagan, Private Speech, Public Purpose: The Role of Governmental Motive in First Amendment Doctrine, 63 U. Chi. L. Rev. 413 (1996); Jed Rubenfeld, The First Amendment’s Purpose, 53 Stan. L. Rev. 767 (2001).) When a law generally applies to a wide range of conduct, and sweeps in speech together with such conduct, there is little reason to think that lawmakers had any motivation with regard to speech, much less an impermissible one. Nonetheless, such a law should still be unconstitutional when applied to speech based on its content—even though the legislature’s motivations may have been quite benign.

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The Court has confronted many cases where a law was content-based as applied. In all those cases, either the Court held that the speech was constitutionally protected, or -- if it held otherwise -- the decision is now viewed as obsolete.

Consider, for instance, the World War I-era cases Debs v. United States, Frohwerk v. United States, and Schenck v. United States. These cases, which upheld the criminal punishment of antiwar speech, are now generally seen as wrongly decided. But the defendants’ statements had violated a generally applicable provision of the Espionage Act, which barred all conduct -- speech or not -- that “willfully obstruct[ed] the recruiting or enlistment service of the United States, to the injury of the service or the United States.”

Hank:
United States v. O'Brien, 391 U.S. 367 (1968), established the mid-level of scrutiny (between strict and rational basis) that that Court uses for incidental restrictions on speech. It is an unfortunate case, however, because the Court lied when it said that it involved an incidental restriction. The statute that made it a criminal offense to burn one's draft card was enacted for the purpose of punishing political speech, and it served no purpose other than to punish political speech. The Court pretended that the statute facilitated the implementation of the draft, but anyone who had a draft card back in those days knows that the only thing that it facilitated was the ability to prove to bartenders and liquor stores that you were 18 (which was the drinking age back then). Failing to have a draft card did not hinder anyone from being drafted, nor even delay the process in the slightest.
7.3.2007 3:32pm
DCraig:
I'm not a lawyer, but as a student of history and political science, I have to agree with Hank- often these decisions to incidentally restrict speech were politically motivated. The one that stands out to me is Debs V US.

On a different note:
I'm interested in something that Professor Volokh wrote in the original article and may or may not have been mentioned in the previous post.. ( p.1285)
"Part II argues that the Giboney doctrine- whether framed as applying to "speech acts," to speech "brigaded with action" or to speech that carries out an illegal "course of conduct"- is indeterminate, dangerous, and inconsistent with most recent cases... when the Giboney argument has been used to support restricting speech that should indeed be restrictable, the srgument still hasn't adequately explained where the first amendment boundaries should be drawn."

I'm not sure if those goes in the last blog or the one upcoming on Part II but, my question for Dr. Volokh is : What would it take for Giboney to be used effectively in supporting an argument that speech is in violation of a criminal act/an "illegal course of conduct" (think Title VII) and still properly delineate where First Amendment boundaries should be drawn? Would grouping illegal course of conduct under fighting words be an appropriate frame of reference? Or do you believe the logic and support for the argument too loose?
7.3.2007 4:33pm
Elliot123 (mail):
I'm reminded of the books on computer hacking that are readily available. They masquerade as guides on how to thwart a hacker, while giving detailed chapter and verse on how to successfully and unlawfully hack into computers.
7.3.2007 4:43pm
nunzio:
Doesn't the Supreme Court uphold strip club ordinances that ban total nudity because totally nude strippers can create "secondary harmful effects" of crime, etc.?
7.3.2007 5:54pm
vukdog:

I look forward to future posts in the series. I never took a course on First Amendment law but was impressed w/ the article on Freedom of Speech and Information Privacy.

I feel Bartnicki v. Vopper was wrongfully decided based on the reasoning of Cohen v. Cowles Media. Just wanted to throw in my 2 cents....
7.3.2007 6:52pm
Hank :

Doesn't the Supreme Court uphold strip club ordinances that ban total nudity because totally nude strippers can create "secondary harmful effects" of crime, etc.?


Yes, that's exactly right. The Supreme Court found that a legislature can reasonably conclude that having strippers dance with pasties covering their nipples does not cause crime, but, take the pasties off and all hell breaks loose. (I am not making this up, although I am paraphrasing.) The Court uses the same "secondary effects" approach to justify zoning pornographic theaters and bookstores, even though singling out such stores would otherwise be unconstitutional content-based discrimination.
7.3.2007 7:29pm
ReaderY:
I think we'd all be better off treating solicitation to commit a crime as representing a content-based exception to the First Amendment (like defamation or obscenity) rather than trying to pretend it's content-neutral.

Adocating the violent overthrow of the United States, or smoking pot, in the abstract is also likely to produce these results; the distinction between specific individual encouragement and abstract advocacy really doesn't make sense as an "effects" analyss.

The 4th Circuit, which decided the Palladin Publications case (the one involving the "Hit Man" book) has always had a broad concept of what constitutes solicitation as distinct from abstract advocacy. For example, in a mid-1970s case called Lesbian and Gay Student Association v. Virginia Commonwealth University, the 4th Circuit held that VCU could not bar the association from campus and had to give it meeting space, because of their right to abstract advocacy and its status as a public forum, but the 4th Circuit notably held that it could prohibit them from engaging in peer counseling. It helf that counseling an individual to engage in prohibited content in a specific situation (as distinct from abstractly advocating it in general) represents solicitation to commit a crime rather than abstract advocacy, and can be prohibited by the state. The Hit Man case makes more sense with this background in mind.

The "neutral effects" theory doessn't seen consistent with these existing results. The distinction between "counseling" and "advocacy" doesn't seem to really describe the distinctions courts like the 4th Circuit have made in practice.

But perhaps the reason for looking for a new theory is that one doesn't like some of these results, so being inconsistent with results one doesn't like is necessarily a disadvantage.
7.3.2007 10:59pm
HowardWasserman (mail):
I do not think Rubenfeld's purposivist theory would lead to a different conclusion in most of these cases. His theory distiguishes being punished "for speaking," meaning for the communicative harms of speech, from being punished "as a result of" engaging in speech. While the focus is on legislative purpose, it seems to take into account executive purpose in applying a facially neutral law to speech. As I read it, application of the law in a case such as Hess or any of the other cases would reflect an executive purpose of punishing for speaking.
7.4.2007 12:24pm
John D. Galt (mail):
I agree with ReaderY that some, admitted, content-based regulation is better than pretending there isn't any content-based regulation and then sneaking some in through back doors.

But I'd like to see that logic extended to two areas that haven't been raised in this thread - "hate crimes" and religious groups that promote terrorism. (I'm avoiding the word "cult" because I feel it is poorly defined and would add heat, not light, to this debate.)

"Hate crime" laws, as I see them, exist to punish terrorist crimes, which are threats-by-gesture directed at large classes of innocent people. (For example, when the Ku Klux Klan murdered somebody or even burned a cross on somebody's lawn they were telling all black people, "Get out of 'our' town or you may be next.)

I support the rights of everyone, including racist bad guys, to believe what they like and to share those beliefs (though if they insult an opponent to his face, and get punched out for it, I don't think that any wrong has been committed). But threat speech is a different matter, and needs to be deterred, or the people making the threats will succeed in bullying their targets.

The best way to stop threat speech, of course, would be for courts to recognize gestures such as cross-burning as the threats the targets know they are, and punish them as such. It's only because the present common-law doesn't allow a court to take cognizance of the obvious intent to threaten that hate-crime laws needed to be enacted to fill the gap.

As far as religion -- I don't see any religion per se as deserving of regulation unless its doctrine actually requires the believer to commit crimes. But I do believe there are lots of "gurus" out there who use religion as a cover to recruit and train terrorists; and I'd like to see police (and informants) allowed to infiltrate and monitor such groups, provided that they refrain from acting as "provocateurs" by instigating crimes that otherwise would not have occurred.

The line between advocacy and solicitation to commit a crime should be drawn at the point where the "advocate" provides the recruit with know-how that will actually help him commit the crime, provided the "advocate" intends for him to do it -- and again, courts need to become willing to assume intent whenever a reasonable onlooker would assume it.
7.4.2007 8:36pm